Ver:V8.02
Q&A:49 Q&As
업그레이트:2010-08-14

덤프문제보기:
1. Which two ports must be enabled to establish communication between GTM Systems and other BIG-IP
Systems?(Choose two.)
A. 22.
B. 53.
C. 443.
D. 4353.
E. 4354.
Answer: AD
2. When initially configuring the GTM System using the config tool,which two parameters can be
set?(Choose two)
A. System hostname
B. IP Address of management port.
C. IP Address of the external VLAN.
D. Defult route for management port.
E. Port lockdown of management port.
Answer: BD
3. If the config tool is complete,which three access methods are available by default for GTM
administration and configuration on 520/540 platforms?(Choose three.)
A. network access via http.
B. network access via https.
C. network access via telnet.
D. network access via serial port.
E. network access via keyboard and monitor.
Answer: BDE
4. What must be sent to the license server to generate a new license?
A. the system s dossier.
B. the system s base license.
C. the system s serial number.
D. the system s purchase order number.
Answer: A
5. After licensing the GTM System,what must be performed to complete activation?
A. reboot of system
B. manual restart of gtmd
C. manual restart of tmm
D. enter the command bigstart restart
Answer: A
6. Which two daemons only run once the entire license process has been completed? (Chosse two)
A. zrd.
B. tmm.
C. ntpd.
D. gtmd.
Answer: AD

Ver:V8.02
Q&A:222 Q&As
업그레이트:2010-08-14

덤프문제보기:
1. Which network topology best describes how EMC Centera nodes are networked together?
A. Bus
B. Mesh
C. Ring
D. Star
Answer: D
2. How many leading bits are used to determine the class of an Internet address?
A. 3
B. 4
C. 8
D. 16
Answer: C
3. In the OSI model, which layer would a router be defined in?
A. Data link
B. Network
C. Network interface
D. Transport
Answer: B
4. Which layer of the OSI model does FTP use?
A. Application
B. Data link
C. Network
D. Transport
Answer: A
5. What are four layers in the ARPA (TCP/IP) architecture?
A. Application, session, transport, and physical
B. Application, transport, network, and network interface
C. Presentation, network, data link, and network interface
D. Presentation, transport, data link, and physical
Answer: B
6. Which port number is used to communicate to an SMTP server?
A. 20 or 21
B. 22
C. 25
D. 321
Answer: C

Ver:V2.10
Q&A:33 Q&As
업그레이트:2010-08-14

 

덤프보기:

1. Which utility can gather information about a wide range of system components?
A. Setup Assistant
B. System Profiler
C. Keychain Access
D. Internet Connect
E. Network Diagnostics
Answer: B
2.What happens when Mac OS X 10.4’s Safe Relaunch feature sets aside an application’s preference
file?
A. It is moved to the Trash
B. It is renamed application.plist.old
C. It is renamed application.plist.saved
D. It is moved to the ~/Library/Recovered Preferences/ folder
E. It is moved to the ~/Library/Preferences/Recovered Preferences/ folder
Answer: C
3. The Console utility ________.
A. displays log files
B. enables root access
C. invokes the command line
D. controls monitor configuration
Answer: A
4.What is the best way to resolve most application/frameworks mismatches in Mac OS X 10.4?
A. Create a new user
B. Repair permissions

C. Run Software Update
D. Reinstall the application
E. Archive and install Mac OS X
Answer: C
5. On a Mac OS X v10.4 computer you see the message shown in the exhibit. What does this message
indicate?
A. A kernel panic has occurred.
B. An application has stopped responding.
C. You have pressed the power button while the computer was powered up.
D. You have connected a bus-powered device that requires more power than is available.
Answer: A

Ver:V4.76
Q&A:140 Q&As
업그레이트:2010-08-14
Photoshop 9A0-057문제는 시험문제의 변화에 따라 업데이트가 될것입니다.시험문제가 매번 바뀐 후, 2일내에 시험문제 9A0-057 를 수정하여 다시 조정함으로서 9A0-057 :Adobe Illustrator CS3 ACE Exam가 시험문제의 점유률을 항상 96% 이상으로 확보합니다.

덤프문제:
1. You want to apply color to the headline of an advertisement. The gradient fill of the color must
complement the background image that is placed as a link in the document. You create a linear gradient
and apply the gradient to the type, but the type remains black. What should you do?
A. Drag the gradient onto the type with the Gradient tool.
B. Sample the gradient with the Eyedropper tool and apply it to the headline type.
C. Create a character style defining the gradient fill as a Character Color attribute and apply it to the
headline.
D. Use the Create Outlines command to make paths from the headline type and apply the gradient.
Answer: D
2. What is the advantage of using an Envelope Distort warp on type artwork over applying a warp effect?
A. Envelope Distort allows you to encode the artwork by embedding the font in the Illustrator document.
B. Envelope Distort allows you to modify the shape of the envelope with the Direct Selection tool.
C. Envelope Distort allows you to create outlines and therefore, you are able to apply gradients and other
effects to the type.
D. Envelope Distort allows you to edit the effect after it is applied.
Answer: B
3. You want to edit one line of type that is part of a paragraph in an existing document. Which tool should
you use?
A. Rectangle
B. Eraser
C. Area Type
D. Lasso
Answer: C
5. You are creating a conference schedule and want to specify a description for different seminars. The
same typographic attributes, including typeface, leading, and alignment, must be applied to each seminar
description. How should you apply these attributes?
A. Set one paragraph with the desired attributes and use the Bridge application to batch process the
attributes.
B. Create a paragraph style and apply it to the entire text.
C. Set one paragraph with the desired attributes, save as an EPS and place in the file.
D. Create a character style with the desired attributes and apply it to the entire text.
Answer: B
6. You open a legacy document, loading the same font that was used during the document creation.
When you compare this document with a hard copy of the original document, you discover that the type in
the new document has reflowed. Why does this happen?
A. The type is converted to outline.
B. The file is saved in the EPS format.
C. The OpenType contextual alternates are enabled.
D. The type engines in Illustrator versions are different.
Answer: D
7. You create a new paragraph style from a selected, formatted paragraph and apply it as you type in
more text. You then decide to decrease the type size of the style by 1 point. The change is reflected in all
styled paragraphs except the original paragraph in which the paragraph style was defined. Why does this
happen?
A. The original formatted paragraph was legacy text.
B. The original text was imported from Microsoft Word. The Word formatting was still retained by the text,
overriding the Illustrator paragraph style.
C. Character styles were created after the paragraph style was applied to the other paragraphs.
D. The paragraph style was not applied to the selected text after creating the paragraph style from the
selected paragraph.
Answer: D

Ver:V8.02
Q&A:55 Q&As
업그레이트:2010-08-30

 

덤프문제보기:

1. Refer to the Exhibit.

Which statement correctly describes the configuration?
A. It is not possible for Snippet4 and Snippet 6 to run in parallel.
B. Snippet6 and Snippet8 can run in parallel.
C. The business process contains a deadlock.
D. The process will not compile if it is configured to be short running.
Answer: A
2. An integration developer has been given the task of training a group of new developers who have no
experience with WebSphere Integration Developer.
Which statements are most likely to be included in the training presentation introducing human task and
their usage in WebSphere Integration Developer?
A. Stand-alone tasks are invoked as a service and can invoke other services.
B. Stand-alone tasks do not have direct access to process-related information.
C. Inline human tasks are SCA component activity.
D. Inline human tasks can not be used to create human task for process administration.
E. Inline tasks can not be used to apply permissions to BPEL activities like invoke, receive etc.
Answer: AB
3. A solution developer is planning the design of a web based music catalog that allows users to listen to
music via an online streaming feature, or to purchase individual selections for download.
What approach would the solution developer take when organizing the work in WebSphere Integration
Developer in order to maximize the reuse potential of the solution?
A. Place the streaming logic in one module and the download logic in a separate module, then place the
common interface files in a library.
B. Place the streaming logic and the download logic in the same integration solution, then place the
interface files in separate libraries.
C. Use two libraries to keep the interfaces of both services separate, then place the application logic of
both services into a single module.
D. Use a single integration solution to store and deploy the entire application, then separate the backend
logic into separate modules.

Answer: A
4. Which activities require usage of a long-running process?
A. Wait
B. Receive Choice
C. Collaboration Scope
D. Asynchronous invocation
E. More than one Receive or Receive Choice activity.
Answer: AE
5. An integration solution includes a business process which needs to invoke a business service. This
service is going to be replaced in a certain known date and time, when a new third party provider will take
ownership of it, honoring a three year contract which starts right at that date. Old and new services do not
differ in terms of their interface.
What is the best way to implement the business process binding to the services?
A. Configure and invoke a Selector for switching services at the specific date and time.
B. Configure and invoke Selector for switching services at the specific date and time, using a mediation
for request routing.
C. Develop and invoke a mediation which routes to the old or new service depending on the request time.
D. Develop and invoke a mediation which routes the request to a Selector, which must be configured for
switching services at the specific date and time.
Answer: A

Ver:V5.46
Q&A:47 Q&As
업그레이트:2010-08-14

 

1.Which of the following is an IBM Reference Architecture?
A.Business Continuity
B.System z10 BC
C.BRCS
D.GDPS
Correct:A 
2.A university physics department  issues a RFP  for a  large system  for  research purposes. The
System z Sales Specialist has never met this group previously. Which of the following describes
the likely financial justification process?
A.The department will conduct a study of all the operating systems available
B.The department will compare distributed, clustered, and centralized implementations and decide based
on TCA
C.The department will compare communication sub systems, and LAN topologies between all vendors
D.The department will purchase a system to meet performance needs at the best price and consider the
total cost of ownership
Correct:B 
3.When discussing the flexibility of System z family of servers with a prospective customer, which
of the following is a key aspect?
A.Binary compatibility between servers
B.Hot pluggable processor and memory boards
C.Consistent CoD features with entire family
D.Ability to interchange features between systems
Correct:A 
4.A z10 customer has just acquired another company and the CFO wants it assimilate the new IT
operations. Which of the following is critical information in assessing thisopportunity?
A.Relative size, and skill of the both IT staffs
B.Project budget
C.system type, operating system and applications
D.Five year combined IT plan
Correct:C 
5.A prospective  retail customer has several underutilized servers and  is considering options  to
consolidate. This business has  twenty-five database servers and application servers, and a  test
and  development  environment.  The  main  server  is  in  the  headquarters  datacenter,  the  other
servers  are  installed  in  remote  regional  offices. Which  of  the  following  certainly  impacts  the
financial justification for consolidating to a central z10?
A.Reduced software licensing costs
B.Reduction of headquarters data center floor space
C.Increased performance of server workloads
D.Simplified networking and systems administration
Correct:D 

Ver:V8.02
Q&A:160 Q&As
업그레이트:2010-08-14
ACSM Certification 030-333 문제는 시험문제의 변화에 따라 업데이트가 될것입니다.시험문제가 매번 바뀐 후, 2일내에 시험문제 030-333  를 수정하여 다시 조정함으로서030-333:ACSM Exercise Specialist Exam가 시험문제의 점유률을 항상 96% 이상으로 확보합니다.

덤프문제보기:
1 .Which of the following is NOT an appropriate treatment activity for inpatient rehabilitation of a
client on the second day after coronary artery bypass graft (CABG) surgery?
A. Limit activities as tolerated to the development of self-care activities, ROM for extremities, and
low-resistance activities.
B. Limit upper body activities to biceps curls, horizontal arm adduction, and overhead press using
5-pound weights while sitting on the side of the bed.
C. Progress all activities performed from supine to sitting to standing.
D. Measure vital signs, symptoms, RPE, fatigue, and skin color and perform electrocardiography
before, during, and after treatments to assess activity tolerance.
Answer: B
2 .Which of the following situations indicates progression to independent and unsupervised exercise
for a client after CABG surgery in an outpatient program?
A. The client exhibits mild cardiac symptoms of angina, occurring intermittently during exercise
and sometimes at home while reading.
B. The client has a functional capacity of greater than 8 MET with hemodynamic responses
appropriate to this level of exercise.
C. The client is noncompliant with smoking cessation and weight loss intervention programs.
D. The client is unable to palpate HR, deliver RPEs, or maintain steady workload intensity during
activity.
Answer: B
3 .Which of the following issues would you include in discharge education instructions for a client
with congestive heart failure to avoid potential emergency situations related to this condition at
home?
A. Record body weight daily, and report weight gains to a physician.
B. Note signs and symptoms (e.g.,dyspnea, intolerance to activities of daily living), and report
them to a physician.
C. Do not palpate the pulse during daily activities or periods of light- headedness, because an
irregular pulse is normal and occurs at various times during the day.
D. Both A and B.
Answer: D
4 .Initial training sessions for a person with severe chronic obstructive pulmonary disease most likely
would NOT include
A. Continuous cycling activity at 70% of Vo2 max for 30 minutes.
B. Use ofdyspnea scales, RPE scales, and pursed-lip breathing instruction.
C. Intermittent bouts of activity on a variety of modalities (exercise followed by short rest).
D. Encouraging the client to achievean intensity either at or above the anaerobic threshold.
Answer: A
5 .Symptoms of claudication include
A. Cramping, burning, and tightness in the calf muscle, usually triggered by activity and relieved
with rest
B. Acute, sharp pain in the foot on palpation at rest.
C. Crepitus in the knee during cycling.
D. Pitting ankle edema at a rating of 3 +
Answer: A
6 .Treatment for claudication during exercise includes all of the following EXCEPT
A. Daily exercise sessions.
B. Intensity of activity to maximal tolerable pain, with intermittent rest periods.
C. Cardiorespiratory building activities that are nonweight bearing if the plan is to work on longer
duration and higher intensity to elicit a cardiorespiratory training effect.
D. Stopping activity at the onset ofclaudication discomfort to avoid further vascular damage from
ischemia.
Answer: D

Ver:V8.02
Q&A:150 Q&As
업그레이트:2010-08-14

 

시험문제먼저체험하기:

1.Select  two suitable statements  regarding  the  following SQL statement: CREATE TRIGGER  trigger_1
AFTER UPDATE ON sales FOR EACH ROW EXECUTE PROCEDURE write_log();
A.It is defining a trigger “trigger_1″.
B.Every time ‘UPDATE’ is executed on the “sales” table, the “write_log” function is called once.
C.The “write_log” function is called before ‘UPDATE’ takes place.
D.’UPDATE’ is not executed if “write_log” returns NULL.
E.’DROP TRIGGER trigger_1 ON sales;’ deletes the defined trigger.
Answer:A E 
2.Select two transaction isolation levels supported in PostgreSQL.
A.DIRTY READ
B.READ COMMITTED
C.REPEATABLE READ
D.PHANTOM READ
E.SERIALIZABLE
Answer:B E 
3.PostgreSQL can use an index to access a table. Select two incorrect statements about indexes.
A.An index is created by ‘CREATE INDEX’, and deleted by ‘DROP INDEX’.
B.By using an index effectively, searching and sorting performs faster.
C.There are B-tree, Hash, R-tree and GiST index types.
D.By creating an index, performance always improves.
E.Creating an unused index does not affect the performance of a database at all.
Answer:D E 
4.Select two incorrect statements regarding ‘DOMAIN’.
A.When defining a domain, you can add a default value and constraints to the original data.
B.Domain is a namespace existing between databases and objects such as tables.
C.A domain is created by ‘CREATE DOMAIN’.
D.A domain can be used as a column type when defining a table.
E.To define a domain, both input and output functions are required.
Answer:B E 
5.Select two suitable statements regarding the data types of PostgreSQL.
A.One field can handle up to 1GB of data.
B.’n’ in CHARACTER(n) represents the number of bytes.
C.Only the INTEGER type can be declared as an array.
D.There  is  a  non-standard  PostgreSQL  data  type,  called  Geometric  data  type,  which  handles
2-dimensional data.
E.A large object data type can be used to store data of unlimited size.
Answer:A D 
6.The  table  “score”  is defined as  follows: gid  | score  —–+—— 1  | 70 1  | 60 2  | 100 3  | 80 3  | 50 The
following query was executed. Select the number of rows in the result. SELECT gid, max(score) FROM
score GROUP BY gid HAVING max(score) > 60;
A.1 row
B.2 rows
C.3 rows
D.4 rows

E.5 rows

Answer:C

Ver:V8.02
Q&A:237 Q&As
업그레이트:2010-08-14

 

일부시험문제보기:

 

1.Which Avaya software is used to provide consolidated reporting with Avaya Proactive Contact 4.X 
and other Avaya communication solutions? 
A. CMS 
B. WebLM 
C. Avaya IQ 
D. Analyst 
Answer: C  
2.Which Avaya CM circuit pack is necessary if the customer expects to do predictive dialing on 
Proactive Contact with CTI? 
A. TN744 Call classifier 
B. TN2602 Media interface 
C. TN799 C-LAN 
D. TN464 DS1 Interface 
Answer: A  
3.Which Proactive Contact component allows clients residing off the dialer to obtain events and real-
time data from the dialer? 
A. Event Service 
B. STATSPUMP 
C. Historical Data Service Component (HDSC) 
D. Dialer Command and Control Service (DCCS) 
Answer: A  
4 .Which two commands are used to configure the cti_passwd.cfg file for an Avaya Proactive Contact 
with CTI with Agent Blending? (Choose two.) 
A. cti_passwd 
B. cti_passwd 
C. cti_passwd -b 
D. cti_passwd 
Answer: C,D  
5 .How does Proactive Contact move digitized messages from the CPU to the Large Port Voice Card 
(LPVC)? 
A. Remote Copy (RCP) 
B. Network File System (NFS) 
C. File Transfer Protocol (FTP) 
D. Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) 
Answer: B  
6 .Which parameter in master.cfg is required to ensure correct agent capacity on a Proactive Contact 
system? 
A. PORTS 
B. LINEASSIGN

C. QUOTA 
D. MAXHIDSLOTS 
Answer: D  
7 .You are working with a third-party to integrate a call recording utility with Proactive Contact. The 
technician for the third-party is not able to see events from Proactive Contact. Which command 
would you type on the Proactive Contact command line to see all statistics from Event Services? 
A. enclient -S $NS 
B. enclient -A 
C. enserver -a 
D. enserver -S $NS 
Answer: A  
8 .Under which two sections in Editor do you set up Record Specific Messaging? (Choose two.) 
A. Contact Management 
B. Messages and Scripts 
C. Jobs 
D. Calling Lists 
Answer: B,D  
9 .You are configuring a Proactive Contact 4.X solution for your customer. They do not use the same 
result codes that the dialer uses. They use a short four-character description. Which Supervisor 
function should you use to ensure that your customer’s host will understand the Avaya completion 
codes? 
A. Translate 
B. Merge 
C. Fill 
D. Format 
Answer: A  
10 .Where is the location of the local policy files on the Avaya Proactive Contact 4.X server? 
A. /opt/avaya/pds/config 
B. /opt/avaya/pds/openssl 
C. /opt/avaya/pds/etc 
D. /etc 
Answer: B