Archive for December, 2008

E20-340

Wednesday, December 31st, 2008

E20-340

1. Click the Exhibit button.

The attached diagram shows the front of a new CX700. One of the disks in the CX700 is highlighted. Based on the standard cabling format, which disk is highlighted?

 

A. 1_1_6

B. 3_0_6

C. 3_0_7

D. 4_1_6

Answer: B

 

2. You have been asked to attend a pre-sales meeting with a client. During the meeting, the client begins to ask questions about SAN switches. The client specifies that they want a SAN switch which can associate “user friendly” names with WWPNs for zoning. Which SAN switch provides this functionality?

A. DS-16B3

B. DS-24B3

C. DS-24M2

D. DS-32M2

Answer: A

 

3. Your customer attached its host to a CLARiiON through an ED-64M switch. The host HBA is not logging into the fabric. Assuming no hardware problems, good cables and a properly configured host, what is the most likely problem?

A. FC-AL bit setting enabled

B. Switch port for host is disabled

C. Port speed on switch improperly set

D. UPM card in secure lockdown mode

Answer: B

 

4. After attaching a Solaris host to a CLARiiON using PowerPath, you wish to see the status and number of the paths per device. What is the command?

A. powercf -i

B. powermt config

C. powermt config dev=all

D. powermt display dev=all

Answer: D

 

5. A small business purchased an CX500 with a pair of DS-24M switches. The company did not purchase Connectrix Manager. Which methods can be used to manage the switches?

A. Telnet, Web Tools

B. Telnet, Embedded Web Server

C. Embedded Web Server, Web Tools

D. DS-M Connect, Fabric/Device Manager

Answer: B

 

6. WS, Inc. plans to implement a firewall between the CLARiiONs and the management host in the data center. Which ports must be opened in the firewall?

A. 80, 433, 2189, 2190

B. 80, 433, 2191, 2192

C. 80, 443, 6389, 6391

D. 80, 443, 6391, 6392

Answer: C

 

7. Click the Exhibit button.

The attached image shows a CLARiiON SP. What kind of CLARiiON does this SP belong to?

 

A. CX500

B. CX600

C. CX700

D. FC4700

Answer: B

 

8. Which SAN fabric topology would have all switches connected with a maximum of one hop between any two nodes?

A. Full Mesh

B. Dual Fabric

C. Partial Mesh

D. Core to Edge

Answer: A

 

9. You are connecting multiple hosts to a CLARiiON Fibre Channel array. How can you mask a server’s LUNs from other hosts?

A. Enable Access Logix

B. Mark the LUNs as private

C. Use switch zoning to map a server to its LUNs

D. Create a dedicated RAID group for the server and its LUNs

Answer: A

 

10. Which tool is available to partners to guide them through how to perform installable tasks?

A. EMC Grab

B. EMC eLab Navigator

C. Partner-facing version of Avatar

D. Partner CLARiiON Procedure Generator

Answer: D

 

11. A client purchased a new CLARiiON that contains:

Five 10,000RPM 73GB Fibre Channel drives

Ten 10,000RPM 146GB Fibre Channel drives

Fifteen 15,000RPM 36GB Fibre Channel drives

Fifteen 7,200RPM 320GB ATA drives.

Which hot spare configuration utilizes the least number of drives for hot spares while still allowing for each hot spare to be as global as possible?

A. One 320GB 7,200RPM ATA drive as a hot spare

B. One 146GB 10,000RPM Fibre Channel drive and one 320GB 7,200RPM ATA drive as a hot spares

C. One 36GB 15,000RPM Fibre Channel drive, one 146GB 10,000RPM Fibre Channel drive, and one 320GB 7,200RPM ATA drive as hot spares

D. One [1] 73GB 10,000RPM Fibre Channel drive, one 36GB 15,000RPM Fibre Channel drive, one 146GB 10,000RPM Fibre Channel drive, and one 320GB 7,200RPM ATA drive as hot spares

Answer: B

 

12. Which operation is available when a SnapView Clone displays its state as “Synchronizing”?

A. Remove

B. Fracture

C. Promote

D. Reverse Synchronize

Answer: B

 

13. The TDS Group will be using Clones of their 500 GB application LUN for backup and testing purposes. The Protected Restore option is used on all Clones. You have bound two Clone Private LUNs of 130 MB each. TDS uses scripts for testing after hours.  What state will its Clones be in after they perform a successful Reverse Synchronization?

A. All Clones in the Clone Group will be fractured

B. All Clones in the Clone Group will be in the Synchronized state

C. All Clones except the one used for the reverse synchronization will be fractured

D. All Clones in the Clone Group will be in the state they were in before the reverse synchronization

Answer: A

 

14. HPG Supplies purchased four new CX700s for its environment. The CLARiiONs will be configured with IP addresses in the range of 10.127.50.200 through 10.127.50.220, with subnet mask 255.255.255.192. Which IP address should be assigned to the management host that will be used to run the Navisphere Storage System Initialization Wizard?

A. 10.127.50.100

B. 10.127.50.150

C. 10.127.50.200

D. 10.127.50.250

Answer: D

 

15. A Sun SOLARIS host has just been added to the SAN. After validating that the cabling is good, the HBAs do not appear in the SAN. What is the problem?

A. The host may not have Navisphere Agent installed

B. The HBA driver has the incorrect queue depth settings

C. The HBA driver may not be configured for Fabric topology

D. The host might not have the proper entries in the “id.conf” file

Answer: C

 

16. Which command allows you to install a Solaris formatted software package?

A. rpm

B. pkgadd

C. installp

D. ./install

Answer: B

 

17. The WWN Initiator image is shaded in grey in the Connectivity Status dialog. What does this mean?

A. The initiator is not registered

B. The initiator is not fibre logged in

C. The Navisphere agent is not installed on the host

D. The initiator is neither registered nor fibre logged in

Answer: B

 

18. A storage domain has a master node configured.  What happens if you try to define another node as the master?

A. Both nodes will share the master node role

B. You cannot change the master node once it has been defined

C. The old node will remain the master and you will receive an error message

D. The old master node will be demoted and the newly defined master will take over

Answer: D

 

19. How many files does the Java CLI addusersecurity command create in the user’s home directory?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Answer: B

 

20. You have been asked to make a metaLUN from two existing LUNs. The first LUN is 100GB and is bound in RAID Group 1. The second LUN is 100GB and is bound in RAID Group 2. Both RAID Groups are RAID-5, and are made up of four disks each. What should the metaLUN’s element size multiplier be?

A. 3

B. 4

C. 6

D. 128

Answer: C

 

21. Assume an HA Solution with two fabrics and each HBA is zoned to two SP ports. How many paths per LUN will be displayed by PowerPath?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 4

D. 8

Answer: C

 

22. The TDS Group will be using a Clone of its 250GB application LUN for backup purposes. You have bound two Clone Private LUNs of 250MB each. TDS heard that Clone granularity is not a fixed value. The Group wants an estimate of the granularity for its 250GB LUN. What do you tell TDS?

A. The granularity is around 2 MB for this size LUN and this size Clone Private LUN

B. The granularity is around 1 MB for this size LUN and any valid Clone Private LUN

C. The granularity is impossible to calculate without knowing the I/O profile of the application, but will be no less than 128 kB

D. The granularity is impossible to calculate without knowing the I/O profile of the application, but will be no more than 128 kB

Answer: B

 

23. If a customer wants to have a standby supervisor module for high availability, which MDS switch is the best choice?

A. 9206

B. 9216

C. 9509

D. 9700 Series Director

Answer: C

 

24. Which SPS test method do CLARiiON systems use to avoid a situation in which write cache may be disabled for extended periods of time?

A. SPS test times are staggered

B. SPS units are tested simultaneously

C. SPS units are tested only on power-up

D. Each SPS is tested on alternate weeks

Answer: A

 

25. Which statement best describes EMC Best Practices physical topology for a CX700 HA environment?

A. Host cabled to single switch with two HBAs on separate ASICs if possible with at least one port on SPA and one port on SPB attached to switch.

B. At least one HBA on the host attached to a single switch, (switch A) with an ISL to a second switch (switch B) where SPA0 and SPB1 are attached.

C. Host employs two HBAs, HBA0 is cabled to switch A and HBA1 is cabled to switch B. Two CLARiiON ports per SP cabled on switch A: SPA0, SPB1 and on switch B: SPB0, SPA1.

D. Four switches employed: CLARiiON ports SPA0, SPB1 are cabled to switch A, SPB0, SPA1 are cabled to switch B. Switch A and B have a dual ISL to Switch C and Switch D. HBA0 on host is attached to Switch C, HBA1 on host is attached to switch D.

Answer: C

 

26. What is the fastest method to expand a LUN?

A. Create a dynamic metaLUN

B. Create a concatenated metaLUN

C. Create a striped metaLUN using the ASAP expansion rate

D. Create a striped metaLUN using the ultra high expansion rate

Answer: B

 

27. What is one benefit of concatenated metaLUNs versus striped metaLUNs?

A. Increased data throughput

B. No private LUNs consumed

C. Increased resistance to disk failures

D. Full capacity available immediately after creation

Answer: D

 

28. WLR, Ltd has an application that uses a 100GB LUN.  It will take a Snapshot of the LUN for testing purposes, and will change all of the data on the Snapshot during the test run. How would you configure the Reserved LUN Pool for this environment?

A. 2 LUNs of 15GB each

B. 4 LUNs of 15GB each

C. 2 LUNs of 60GB each

D. 4 LUNs of 60GB each

Answer: D

 

29. You look at the Disk Summary screen on your customer’s CLARiiON and notice that one of the drives shows a status of “Equalizing”. You want to get further information from the SP Event Log. What type of event should you look for?

A. A disk has failed

B. An SPS is charging

C. A LUN has been unbound

D. A LCC has been power cycled

Answer: A

 

30. A client wants to setup a SnapView SnapShot for a specific LUN on its CLARiiON. The LUN is 100GB in size, and has a normal change rate of 3GB per hour. The default owner of the LUN is SPA. No changes will be made to the SnapShot LUN while it is active.

The Reserved LUN Pool configuration must be able to accomplish the following:

1. Maintain the SnapShot for 4 hours

2. Withstand a failover of the SnapShot to the other SP

3. Limit wasted disk space in the Reserved LUN Pool

What is the appropriate Reserved LUN Pool configuration?

A. A Reserved LUN Pool for SPA of four 5GB LUNs. No Reserved LUN Pool for SPB.

B. A Reserved LUN Pool for SPA of three 5GB LUNs. No Reserved LUN Pool for SPB.

C. A Reserved LUN Pool for SPA of four 5GB LUNs. A Reserved LUN Pool for SPB of four 5GB LUNs.

D. A Reserved LUN Pool for SPA of three 5GB LUNs. A Reserved LUN Pool for SPB of three 5GB LUNs.

Answer: B

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70-270

Tuesday, December 30th, 2008

70-270

1. You are a desktop administrator for your company. A company user reports that he is unable to use his Bluetooth-enabled mobile phone with his Bluetooth-enabled Windows XP Professional computer. He is trying to play audio from the phone through the speakers on his computer.

You verify that other Bluetooth devices work properly with the user’s computer. You test the speakers to make sure they are in working order. You also verify that the mobile phone can send output to a computer. You then discover that the phone cannot detect the computer.

You need to ensure that the user can use the phone with his computer. What should you do?

A. Place the phone in Bluetooth discovery mode.

B. Place the user’s computer in Bluetooth discovery mode.

C. Add the phone and the computer to the same Bluetooth Personal Area Network (PAN).

D. Install mobile phone synchronization software on the user’s computer.

Answer: B

 

2. You are a desktop administrator for your company. You are responsible for deploying a new application. The application is packaged in an .msi file.

You need to deploy the application to only three users in the company. The .msi file contains all of the information necessary to correctly install the application.

You need to install the application so that users see information about the installation progress, but no other user interface is displayed during the installation. What should you do?

A. Use the Msiexec.exe program to perform a quiet installation of the application.

B. Use the Msiexec.exe program to perform a passive installation of the application.

C. Create a Group Policy object (GPO) that assigns the application. Link the GPO to the site containing the users who will use the application.

D. Create a Group Policy object (GPO) that advertises the application. Link the GPO to the domain.

Answer: B

 

3. You are a desktop administrator for your company. You need to deploy a new application. The application is packaged in an .msi file.

The application will be used by only a small number of users. You plan to install the application by using the Msiexec.exe program.

You need to ensure that the installation process does not display a user interface. What should you do?

A. Manually perform a passive installation of the application.

B. Manually perform a quiet installation of the application.

C. Use a logon script to run the Msiexec.exe program.

D. Use the Runas utility to run the Msiexec.exe program.

Answer: B

 

4. You are the network administrator for one of your company’s branch offices. Ten employees work in the branch office. All client computers in the branch office run Windows XP Professional. All client computers have manually configured IP addresses in the 192. 168. 1. 0/24 range.

The branch office has a cable modem connection to the Internet. All employees in the branch office need access to the main office by means of a virtual private network (VPN) connection over the Internet. The VPN connection is configured as shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)

 

Employees in the branch office report that they cannot access resources that are located on the main office network. You investigate and discover that you can establish a VPN connection locally on a client computer named Pro1 and can access main office network resources. However, you cannot connect to Pro1 from other computers on the branch office network.

You want all employees in the branch office to be able to access main office network resources by means of the VPN connection on Pro1.  What should you do?

A. Disable Windows Firewall on the main office VPN connection.

B. Add a port exception to Windows Firewall to allow incoming PPTP traffic on the main office VPN connection.

C. Select the Allow other network users to control or disable the shared Internet connection check box.

D. Configure all client computers in the branch office to obtain IP addresses automatically.

Answer: D

 

5. You are a help desk technician for your company. Stefan and Irene are software developers for the company. Stefan is developing a Web application on his Windows XP Professional computer. The computer is named Stefan132.  All client computers use Microsoft Internet Explorer 6. 0 or later as their Web browser.

When Irene types http://Stefan132 in the Address bar of her Web browser, she cannot access the Web application. However, Stefan can access the Web application by typing http://localhost or http://Stefan132 in the Address bar of his Web browser. He can also access resources on the company network.

When you run the Ping command on your computer, you cannot connect to Stefan’s computer. When you attempt to access http://Stefan132 from your computer, Internet Explorer displays “DNS or Server Error.”

You need to ensure that Irene can access the Web application on Stefan’s computer. First, you establish a Remote Assistance connection to Stefan’s computer.

What should you do next on Stefan’s computer?

A. Run the IPconfig /renew command.

B. Stop and then restart the World Wide Web Publishing service.

C. Ensure that the Everyone group has Allow - Full Control permission on the Inetpub folder.

D. In the properties of the Local Area Connection connection, allow a Windows Firewall exception for port 80.

Answer: D

 

6. You are the administrator of a Windows XP Professional computer named Pro1.  The computer is connected to the Internet. Pro1 provides Internet access to eight other Windows XP Professional computers that are connected to Pro1.

You enable Internet Connection Sharing (ICS) and Windows Firewall on Pro1.

You run an application named App1 on Pro1.  App1 communicates with an online training company on the Internet. To display an online seminar, the training company needs to contact the App1 application at port 5800.

You want to ensure that the training company can connect to the App1 application. What should you do?

A. Configure Windows Firewall to enable the Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP) Allow redirect option. Then start the App1 application that opens port 5800.

B. Create a new service exception named App1.  Use port 5800 as both the external and internal port number.

C. Edit the %systemroot%\System32\Drivers\Etc\Services file on Pro1 to include a service definition named App1 for port 5800.

D. Change the TCP/IP settings on Pro1 to enable TCP/IP filtering. Permit network traffic on port 5800.

Answer: B

 

7. You are the desktop administrator for your company. The company’s network contains a RIS server, a DHCP server, and a DNS server.

You need to install Windows XP Professional on a computer that does not have a CD-ROM drive. The computer has the following configuration:

?a Pentium III 1-GHz processor

?a 5-GB hard disk

?128 MB of RAM

?a modem in the first PCI slot

?an Ethernet card in the last ISA slot

You attempt to install Windows XP Professional on the computer by using a RIS bootable floppy disk. However, you are unable to connect to the RIS server.

What should you do?

A. Move the Ethernet card to the first ISA slot.

B. Remove the Ethernet card and replace it with an Ethernet card that is PXE compliant.

C. Share the RIS image on the RIS server. Create a network bootable floppy disk. Insert the floppy disk, and install Windows XP Professional from the share.

D. Place the NDIS network drivers in the root directory of the RIS bootable floppy disk. Use the floppy disk to connect to the RIS server.

Answer: B

 

8. You are the desktop administrator for your company. You successfully perform a clean installation of Windows XP Professional on drive C of a computer that is used by an employee named Susan.

Susan is a software developer. She wants her computer to have a dual-boot configuration so that she can use either Windows XP Professional or Windows 2000 Professional. She installs Windows 2000 Professional on drive G.

After installing Windows 2000 Professional, Susan restarts her computer and chooses to start Windows XP Professional. When Windows XP Professional starts, Susan sees the following error message, which is also shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)

 

“Windows 2000 could not start because the following file is missing or corrupt: \WINDOWS\SYSTEM32\CONFIG\SYSTEM”

However, Susan restarts her computer and is able to successfully start Windows 2000 Professional.

You want Susan’s dual-boot configuration to function properly. You start Susan’s computer and choose to start Windows 2000 Professional.

What should you do next?

A. Copy the NTLDR file and the Ntdetect.com file from the i386 folder on the Windows XP Professional CD-ROM to the root directory of drive C.

B. Copy the NTLDR file and the Ntdetect.com file from the i386 folder on the Windows XP Professional CD-ROM to the root directory of drive G.

C. Restore the C:\Windows\System32\Config\System file from a recent backup.

D. Restore the G:\Windows\System32\Config\System file from a recent backup.

Answer: A

 

9. You are the desktop administrator for your company’s sales department. Katrin is a user in the sales department. You need to upgrade Katrin’s Windows 2000 Professional computer to Windows XP Professional.

Philippe is the network administrator. He previously downloaded updated Setup files and placed them on a server named Server1, in a shared folder named Updates. Philippe has successfully installed computers by using these updated Setup files.

You want to ensure that these updated Setup files are automatically installed on Katrin’s computer during the upgrade. Which command should you run to start Setup?

A. Winnt32. exe /dushare:\\server1\updates

B. Winnt32. exe /copydir:\\server1\updates

C. Winnt32. exe /duprepare:\\server1\updates

D. Winnt32. exe /copysource:\\server1\updates

Answer: A

 

10. You are the desktop administrator for your company’s sales department. You need to perform a clean installation of Windows XP Professional on a computer that currently runs Windows 98.

You start the installation. The text-based portion of Setup finishes successfully. Before the GUI-based portion of Setup starts, the computer stops responding. You investigate and discover that there is a problem with a device driver.

You want to know which device is causing the problem. What should you do?

A. Modify the Boot.ini file to include the /fastdetect switch.

B. Modify the Boot.ini file to include the /sos switch.

C. Restart Setup by using the /dudisable switch.

D. Restart Setup by using the /dushare switch.

E. Restart the computer. From the Recovery console, read the Dr. Watson log.

F. Restart the computer. From the Recovery console, read the Comsetup.log file.

Answer: B

 

11. You are the desktop administrator for your company’s sales department. The company’s network contains a RIS server.

You need to install Windows XP Professional on a computer that has a SCSI disk subsystem. You start the computer by using the Windows XP Professional CD-ROM, and you begin the installation. However, Setup reports that it cannot find any disks on which to install Windows XP Professional.

You start the computer by using a RIS bootable floppy disk, and you receive the same result. What should you do?

A. Add an answer file to the root directory of the RIS bootable floppy disk.

   Start the computer by using the RIS bootable floppy disk, and run Setup by using RIS.

B. Add the SCSI-controller driver to the root directory of the RIS bootable floppy disk.

   Start the computer by using the RIS bootable floppy disk, and run Setup by using RIS.

C. Start the computer by using the Windows XP Professional CD-ROM, and run Setup.

   After Setup starts, provide an answer file on a floppy disk.

D. Start the computer by using the Windows XP Professional CD-ROM, and run Setup.

   After Setup starts, provide a SCSI-controller driver on a floppy disk.

E. Start the computer by using the Windows XP Professional CD-ROM, and run Setup.

   After Setup starts, provide the appropriate HAL on a floppy disk.

Answer: D

 

12. You are the desktop administrator for your company. You are responsible for automating the deployment of Windows XP Professional to new computers in your company. You are preparing a Windows XP Professional computer, which you will use to test disk imaging.

You install Windows XP Professional on the test computer and run the Sysprep utility. You use a third-party software package to create a disk image. You apply the disk image to a new computer and then restart the computer.

Instead of completing the Windows XP Professional installation, the computer starts the Windows Welcome program, requiring you to enter additional setup information.

Because you will be deploying a large number of computers, you want to ensure that the disk image can be applied without additional user interaction. What should you do?

A. Use a network-based RIS server to apply the disk image to new computers.

B. On the test computer, run the Sysprep -factory command. Re-create the disk image by using the third-party software.

C. Use Setup Manager to create a Sysprep answer file. Copy the answer file to a floppy disk, and insert the disk into new computers when the disk image is applied.

D. Create an Unattend.txt answer file. Copy the file to the C:\Winnt\System32 folder on the test computer. Run the Sysprep utility and re-create the disk image by using the third-party software.

Answer: C

 

13. You are the desktop administrator for one of your company’s branch offices. The network in the branch office consists of a single network segment, which contains a domain controller, a DHCP server, 10 Windows 2000 Server computers, and 50 Windows 2000 Professional computers. All servers and client computers are members of the company’s Active Directory domain.

You purchase 50 new client computers for the branch office. Each new client computer contains a built-in PXE-compliant network adapter. You install and configure RIS on one of the Windows 2000 Server computers that is on the network in the branch office. You create a Windows XP Professional RIS image on the Windows 2000 Server computer.

You connect the new client computers to the network in the office, and you turn on each computer. Each computer displays a message stating that it cannot contact a PXE boot server. You verify that the RIS server is connected to the network.

You need to ensure that the new client computers can connect to the RIS server and can begin installing Windows XP Professional. What should you do?

A. Ask a domain administrator to authorize the RIS server.

B. Grant the Everyone group Allow - Read NTFS permission on the RIS image.

C. Install RIS on the domain controller. Copy the RIS image to the domain controller.

D. Add a reservation for the RIS server to the DHCP server.

Answer: A

 

14. You are the desktop administrator for your company. You need to deploy Windows XP Professional to 50 new computers. You want to use a fully automated installation process.

Each new computer is configured with a 20-GB hard disk, a CD-ROM drive, and a floppy disk drive. The computers do not contain network adapter cards.

You specify the company’s standard installation settings and save them in an answer file.

You want to use the Sysprep utility to prepare the source computer for the deployment. Which two actions should you take? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)

A. Place the answer file in C:\Windows\System.

B. Place the answer file in C:\Windows\System32.

C. Place the answer file in C:\Sysprep.

D. Place Sysprep.exe and Setupcl.exe in C:\Windows\System.

E. Place Sysprep.exe and Setupcl.exe in C:\Windows\System32.

F. Place Sysprep.exe and Setupcl.exe in C:\Sysprep.

Answer: CF

 

15. You are a help desk technician for your company, which is in the process of deploying Windows XP Professional to all client computers.

You upgrade Pierre’s Windows 98 portable computer to Windows XP Professional. After the upgrade, Pierre reports that some of his older software applications no longer work properly. Also, one of the hardware devices on his computer is not currently supported by Windows XP Professional. Pierre requests that you reinstall Windows 98 and all of his applications so that he can use his computer normally.

You need to restore Pierre’s computer to its pre-upgraded state while retaining all of the applications, documents, and personal data on the computer. You want to accomplish this task in the minimum amount of time.

What should you do?

A. Copy Pierre’s documents and personal data to a shared folder on the network.

B. Reinstall Windows 98 and Pierre’s applications.

C. Copy the documents and personal data to the My Documents folder on Pierre’s computer.

D. On Pierre’s computer, run Setup.exe from a Windows 98 installation CD.

E. On Pierre’s computer, use the Add or Remove Programs Wizard to remove the Windows XP Professional Installation item.

F. On Pierre’s computer, use a third-party disk-imaging software utility to apply a disk image that contains Windows 98 and Pierre’s applications.

Answer: C

 

16. You are the desktop administrator for your company. You need to upgrade a Windows 98 computer to Windows XP Professional. Windows 98 is installed in a folder named C:\Win98.  You need to ensure that the computer’s applications and settings are retained after the upgrade.

You insert the Windows XP Professional CD-ROM into the computer and restart the computer. The text-based portion of Setup appears. The text on the screen states that Windows XP Professional will be installed in a folder named C:\Windows, not in the C:\Win98 folder.

You need to ensure that Windows XP Professional upgrades the existing Windows 98 installation. What should you do?

A. Rename the C:\Win98 folder to C:\Windows.

B. Modify the installation settings in the text-based portion of Setup so that Windows XP Professional is installed in the C:\Win98 folder.

C. Restart the computer by using Windows 98.  Then insert the Windows XP Professional CD-ROM into the computer and run Setup from the CD-ROM.

D. Use the Windows XP Professional CD-ROM to create a set of Setup floppy disks. Restart the computer by using the first floppy disk in the set to launch Setup.

Answer: C

 

17. You are the desktop administrator for your company’s sales department. Susan is a user in the sales department. Susan’s computer currently runs Microsoft Windows NT Workstation 4. 0.  Susan uses a legacy application that is compatible with only Windows NT Workstation.

You want to install Windows XP Professional on Susan’s computer. You plan to set up a dual-boot configuration so that Susan can run either Windows XP Professional or Windows NT Workstation.

Susan’s computer has two hard disks, named drive C and drive G. You install Windows XP Professional on drive G. After Windows XP Professional is installed, Susan reports that Windows NT Workstation is no longer available.

You need to ensure that both operating systems are available on Susan’s computer. What should you do?

A. Insert the Windows XP Professional CD-ROM into the computer.

   Run the Sfc.exe /scannow command.

B. Insert the Windows XP Professional CD-ROM into the computer.

   Run the Winnt32. exe /cmdcons command.

C. Start the computer by using an MS-DOS bootable floppy disk.

   Run the Attrib.exe -r -h -s c:\bootsect.dos command.

D. Start the computer by using the Windows XP Professional CD-ROM.

   From the Recovery console, run the Bootcfg /rebuild command.

Answer: D

 

18. You are a help desk technician for your company. All employees use Windows XP Professional computers.

A salesperson named Philippe receives a removable disk drive cartridge from his supervisor. Philippe now reports that he cannot edit files on the cartridge. When he tries to open any files or folders on the cartridge, he receives an “access denied” error message. Philippe’s supervisor is currently out of the office.

You place the cartridge in the removable drive on your computer. You receive the same “access denied” error message when you try to access the files and folders.

You call Philippe’s supervisor. She asks you to grant permission to access the contents of the cartridge only to Philippe. However, she also wants to prevent Philippe from changing permissions on the contents of the cartridge.

Which two actions should you take? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)

A. As Administrator, take ownership of the files and folders.

B. As Administrator, grant your help desk user account Allow - Full Control permission on the files and folders.

C. Grant Philippe Allow - Modify permission on the files and folders.

D. Grant Philippe Allow - Full Control permission on the files and folders.

E. Grant Philippe Allow - Take Ownership permission on the files and folders.

Answer: AC

 

19. You are the desktop administrator for your company’s sales department. Susan is a user in the sales department. Susan’s Windows XP Professional computer has a single hard disk, which is formatted as NTFS.

Susan’s computer contains a folder named C:\Files1.  The C:\Files1 folder is shared as Files1.  Users in the sales department have permissions to create files in the Files1 shared folder.

Company policy allows interns to read files, but prohibits interns from creating files in the Files1 shared folder. Company policy allows members of the Sales group and the Marketing group to create files in the Files1 shared folder.

Carlos is an intern. He is a member of the Interns group, the Sales group, and the Marketing group. Susan reports that Carlos is able to create files in the Files1 shared folder.

You inspect Susan’s computer to evaluate the Files1 shared folder. Permissions on Susan’s computer are granted as shown in the following table.

 

You want ensure that Carlos cannot create files in the Files1 shared folder. What should you do?

A. On the Files1 shared folder, remove the Interns group’s access.

B. On the C:\Files1 folder, remove the Interns group’s access.

C. On the C:\Files1 folder, assign the Interns group Deny - Full Control permission.

D. On the C:\Files1 folder, assign the Interns group Deny - Write permission.

Answer: D

 

20. You are the desktop administrator for your company. The company’s network consists of a single Active Directory domain. All client computers run Windows XP Professional.

Bruno is a user in the graphics department. Bruno creates a new shared folder named GFXTemplates on his computer. The GFXTemplates folder contains custom templates that are used by various applications. The permissions on the GFXTemplates folder must meet the following requirements:

?Users must be able to access the GFXTemplates folder and all files it contains.

?Users must be able to add newly created template files to the GFXTemplates folder.

?Users must not be able to delete any files in the GFXTemplates folder.

Bruno configures permissions on the GFXTemplates folder as shown in the following table.

 

The users in the graphics department report that they cannot add files to the GFXTemplates folder. What should you do to resolve this problem?

A. Modify the NTFS permissions on the GFXTemplates folder to grant the Everyone group Allow - Modify permission.

B. Modify the NTFS permissions on the GFXTemplates folder to grant the Users group Allow - Read and Allow - Write permissions.

C. Modify the shared folder permissions on the GFXTemplates folder to grant the Everyone group Allow - Change permission.

D. Modify the shared folder permissions on the GFXTemplates folder to grant the Users group Allow - Read and Allow - Write permissions.

Answer: B

 

21. You are the desktop administrator for your company’s sales department. Each Windows computer in the sales department runs Windows XP Professional and a third-party Internet browser.

Carmen is a user in the sales department. Carmen’s computer has a single hard disk with two partitions, named drive C and drive G. Both partitions are formatted as FAT32.  Carmen stores her data on drive G. A folder named Files1 on drive G is shared as Files1.  Users in the sales department have permissions to save documents in the Files1 shared folder.

Roger is the manager of the sales department. He wants to be able to read the documents that are in the Files1 shared folder from his UNIX client computer.

Carmen reports that users of the Windows XP Professional computers are able to successfully save files in the Files1 shared folder. Roger reports that he is not able to locate the Files1 shared folder while using his UNIX client computer.

You need to ensure that Roger can read files in the Files1 shared folder from his UNIX computer. Which two actions should you take? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)

A. Create an additional share for the G:\Files1 folder and name the new share Wwwroot.

B. Create a Web share for the G:\Files1 folder.

C. Install Internet Information Services (IIS) on Carmen’s computer.

D. Install Internet Explorer on Carmen’s computer.

E. Convert drive G to NTFS.

F. Convert drive C to NTFS.

Answer: BC

 

22. You and Stephen are the desktop administrators for your company. You install a printer on your Windows XP Professional computer. You share this printer on the company network.

You want to ensure that only members of the DTAdmins local group can use this printer, and that only you and Stephen can manage the printer and all print jobs. You also want to ensure that members of the DTAdmins local group can manage only their own print jobs.

How should you configure security on this printer?

A. Grant Allow - Print permission to the DTAdmins group. Grant Allow - Manage Documents permission to your user account and to Stephen’s user account.

B. Grant Allow - Print permission to the DTAdmins group. Grant Allow - Manage Documents and Allow - Manage Printers permissions to your user account and to Stephen’s user account.

C. Grant Allow - Manage Documents permission to the DTAdmins group. Grant Allow - Manage Printers permission to your user account and to Stephen’s user account.

D. Grant Allow - Print permission to the DTAdmins group. Remove Allow - Manage Documents permission from the Creator Owner group. Grant Allow - Manage Printers permission to your user account and to Stephen’s user account.

Answer: B

 

23. You are the desktop administrator of your company’s network. You install a print device on a Windows XP Professional computer. This print device should be used only by the desktop administration staff and by managers. You share the printer on the network as DTA-Print and assign Allow - Print permissions to the DTA-S group, which includes staff members’ accounts, and the DTA-M group, which includes managers’ accounts.

Later, the managers report that they must wait a long time for their jobs to print. You discover that the desktop administration staff generates many problematic print jobs. As a result, the managers’ print jobs must wait a long time in the print queue.

You need to ensure that the managers’ print jobs print as quickly as possible while minimizing hardware costs. What should you do?

A. Install a second printer for the same print device on the Windows XP Professional computer.

   Share this printer as DTA-Manager, and grant Allow - Print permission to the DTA-M group only.

   Configure a priority setting of 1 on DTA-Print. Configure a priority setting of 99 on DTA-Manager.

B. Install a second printer for the same print device on the Windows XP Professional computer.

   Share this printer as DTA-Manager, and grant Allow - Print permissions to the DTA-M group only.

   Configure a priority setting of 99 on DTA-Print. Configure a priority setting of 1 on DTA-Manager.

C. Connect a second print device to the Windows XP Professional computer.

   Create a printer pool from the first defined printer.

   Configure a priority setting of 1 on the printer pool.

   Grant Allow - Manage Documents permission to DTA-M group.

D. Connect a second print device to the Windows XP Professional computer.

   Create a printer pool from the first defined printer.

   Configure a priority setting of 99 on the printer pool.

   Grant Allow - Manage Documents permission to DTA-M group.

Answer: A

 

24. You are the desktop administrator for your company. You connect a print device to a Windows XP Professional computer for the users in the help desk department. You share the printer on the network as HDPrint. You grant the HDUsers and HDManagers groups Allow - Print permission on HDPrint.

Several users in the HDUsers group report that it often takes several minutes for their print jobs to print after they are submitted. You investigate and discover that under normal use, the print queue length often exceeds 50 print jobs.

You want to improve printing performance for the users in the HDUsers group. What should you do?

A. Install a second printer that uses the same print device. Share the second printer as HDPrint2.  Configure a priority setting of 99 on HDPrint2.

B. Increase the print job priority settings to 99 for all print jobs that are submitted by the users in the HDUsers group.

C. Connect a second, identical print device to the Windows XP Professional computer. In the properties for HDPrint, select the Enable printer pooling check box.

D. In the printer properties for HDPrint, select the Print directly to the printer option and clear the Enable advanced printing features check box.

Answer: C

 

25. You are the desktop administrator for your company. All employees have Windows XP Professional computers. All employees are members of the local Users group on their own computers.

A user in the graphics department has a removable disk cartridge drive on his computer. The disk cartridge contains an unsupported, third-party file system. When he tries to save data to the disk cartridge, the user is prompted to reformat the disk cartridge. However, he receives an “access denied” error message when attempting to reformat.

You need to enable the user to save data to the disk cartridge. What should you do?

A. Instruct the user to format the cartridge as FAT32.

B. Remove the Read-only attribute from the disk cartridge.

C. Add the user to the Power Users local group on the computer.

D. Grant the user Allow - Full Control permission on the disk cartridge.

E. Configure the local security settings to allow the user to format and eject removable media.

Answer: E

 

26. You are the desktop administrator for your company. All employees have Windows XP Professional portable computers.

A sales representative named Richard has a local user account on his computer. Richard is issued a portable USB print device. You log on to his computer and disable the restrictions on loading unsigned drivers. All other local computer policies are configured with the default settings.

You restart Richard’s computer. Then Richard connects the USB print device, but the printer does not appear in the Printers folder, and Richard cannot print any documents.

You need to ensure that Richard can install the printer and print successfully. What should you do?

A. Add Richard to the local Print Operators group on his computer.

B. Add the /fastdetect switch in the Boot.ini file on Richard’s computer.

C. Disable the Prevent users from installing printer drivers local security policy setting.

D. Modify the Driver Signing Options, selecting the Make this action the system default check box.

Answer: D

 

27. You are the desktop administrator for your company. All client computers run Windows XP Professional. Currently, 10 of the computers in the graphics department contain two processors.

You want to install a second processor in each of the remaining computers in the graphics department. You install a second processor in a test computer. When you start the computer, the start process begins normally and then terminates. You receive the following error message:

“STOP: 0×00000079 HAL_MISMATCH.”

When you restart the computer, it stops again, and you receive the same error message. You remove the second processor, and the computer starts normally. When you attempt to install a second processor in a different test computer, the same STOP error occurs.

You need to eliminate the error so that you can install the second processor on all of the computers. What should you do?

A. Before you install the second processor, install the multiprocessor HAL on each computer.

B. Before you install the second processor, configure the each computer’s system BIOS for multiprocessor APM.

C. After you install the second processor, restart each computer by using the Recovery console, and copy the multiprocessor HAL files from the Windows XP Professional CD-ROM.

D. After you install the second processor, start each computer in safe mode. Configure the SSDP Discovery Service startup parameter to Manual.

Answer: A

 

28. You are the desktop administrator for your company. All employees in the graphics department use identical dual-processor Windows XP Professional computers. The employees in the graphics department use only 32-bit Windows applications.

Veronica is a user in the graphics department. Veronica reports poor system performance when she runs a certain custom application. The application was designed for multiprocessor use with Windows 2000.  Veronica reports that the performance problems have only recently begun.

You run Task Manager on Veronica’s computer. You view the performance statistics shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)

 

You need to improve application performance on Veronica’s computer. What should you do?

A. Create a shortcut for the application that includes the Start /separate command in the command line.

B. Configure the application to run by using Windows 2000 compatibility mode.

C. Upgrade the system BIOS on Veronica’s computer to support Automatic Programmable Interrupt Controller (APIC) symmetric multiprocessing.

D. Configure the processor affinity option on Veronica’s computer so that all application processes use both processors.

Answer: D

 

29. You are the desktop administrator for your company. All users in the network have Windows XP Professional computers. Users in the research department have dual-processor computers.

Users in the research department report that when they run 16-bit Windows programs, their computer performance becomes very slow. You use System Monitor to monitor the users’ computers. You discover that when the users are running their 16-bit applications, one processor shows a sustained utilization of more than 90 percent while the other processor only shows utilization of less than 10 percent.

You need to improve application performance for the users in the research department. What should you do?

A. Configure each application to run in a separate memory space.

B. Configure each application to run in AboveNormal priority class.

C. For each application, set the compatibility mode to Windows 95.

D. Configure processor affinity for each application to allow it to run on both processors.

Answer: A

 

30. You are the administrator of a Windows XP Professional computer. The computer has three identical 4-GB hard disks. The disk and volume configuration of the computer is shown in the following table.

 

At the beginning of a new project, you want to configure the computer’s disks so that you can store 2. 5 GB of new data. You want to ensure that you optimize the performance with which the 2. 5 GB of data can be written to the disks.

Which two actions should you take? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)

A. Convert both disk 1 and disk 2 to dynamic disks.

B. Convert only disk 2 to a dynamic disk.

C. Extend volume D to include the unallocated space on disk 1.

D. Create a new spanned volume that contains the 1. 5 GB of unallocated space on disk 1 and 1. 5 GB of the unallocated space on disk 2. 

E. Create a new striped volume that contains the 1. 5 GB of unallocated space on disk 1 and 1. 5 GB of the unallocated space on disk 2.

Answer: AE

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251-351

Monday, December 29th, 2008

251-351

1.What are two valid settings for FailOverPolicy? (Choose two.)

A.Priority

B.RoundRobin

C.Order

D.Failover

E.Capacity

Correct:A B

2.During a test of a persistent resource, the Veritas Cluster Server engine log indicates that the service group and the persistent resource enter the FAULTED state on all systems in the cluster. The resource enters the ONLINE state after the root cause of the fault is corrected. Which default attribute setting allows the service group to attempt to start without manual intervention?

A.AutoStart

B.AutoClear

C.AutoRestart

D.AutoFailover

Correct:C

3.You are using the Veritas Cluster Server (VCS) Java console to connect to a VCS Simulator session that is running within a production VCS cluster. The Java console is unable to connect to the VCS Simulator session. What are two possible causes for the connection problem? (Choose two.)

A.HAD for the production VCS cluster is not running.

B.The VCS Simulator is not running.

C.The port number is incorrect.

D.The hashadow process for the VCS cluster is hung.

E.The ClusterService group is offline.

Correct:B C

4.A PostOnline trigger is being tested on a three-system cluster with systems named SystemA, SystemB, and SystemC. The trigger works on SystemA, but it fails to run on SystemB and SystemC. What is a possible reason for this?

A.The PostOnline trigger is missing from SystemB and SystemC.

B.The hatrigger script must be run on all systems to enable the PostOnline trigger.

C.The PostOnline attribute is set to False on SystemB and SystemC.

D.The Veritas Cluster Server engine had an error while replicating the trigger to SystemB and SystemC.

Correct:A

5.What is the correct configuration of Exchange to enable failover in a cluster?

A.Active/Passive with four systems and two Exchange instances

B.Active/Active with four systems and five Exchange instances

C.Active/Active with four systems each running multiple Exchange instances

D.Active/Passive with four systems and four Exchange instances

Correct:A

6.Refer to the exhibit. A new VMDg resource is manually added to an existing service group, but the VMDg resource fails to probe and shows a red question mark on the Veritas Cluster Server Java console. What is a possible reason for this condition?

 

A.The DiskGroupName attribute was typed incorrectly.

B.The ForceImport attribute was set to True.

C.The DGGuid attribute was left blank.

D.The VMDg resource was set to non-critical.

Correct:A

7.Which two attributes must be defined for a SQLServer2005 resource? (Choose two.)

A.UserAccount

B.Instance

C.DetailMonitor

D.LanmanResName

E.MountV

Correct:B D

8.Which service group attribute setting calls a user-defined script that checks for external conditions before bringing the service group online?

A.PreOnlining

B.PreOnline

C.Priority

D.Probed

Correct:B

9.What is the default level of authorization of a new Veritas Cluster Server user?

A.Cluster Administrator

B.Cluster Operator

C.Cluster Guest

D.Group Administrator

E.Group Operator

Correct:C

10.Given a three-node cluster running two instances of Exchange with an any-to-any configuration, which FailOverPolicy prevents one instance of Exchange from attempting to fail over to the node with Exchange running on it?

A.Round-robin

B.Priority

C.Load

D.Exclusive

Correct:C

11.Which functionality is added to the Java console when accessing the Veritas Cluster Server Simulator rather than a running cluster? (Choose two.)

A.power off/on a system

B.delete a system

C.fault a resource

D.fault a heartbeat link

E.power off/on a disk array

F.remove a heartbeat link

Correct:A C

12.A cluster has three systems: S1, S2, and S3; and six service groups: SGa, SGb, SGc, SGd, SGe, and SGf. The SGa, SGd, and SGf service groups are online on the S1 system. The SGc and SGe service groups are online on the S2 system. The SGb service group is online on the S3 system. Given the partial main.cf definition: Group SGb ( SystemList = { S1 = 0, S2 = 1, S3 = 1 } AutoStartList = { S1, S2, S3 } FailOverPolicy = RoundRobin ) If the S3 system reboots, what happens to SGb?

A.It goes to system S1.

B.It goes to system S2.

C.It goes to system S3.

D.It remains offline.

Correct:B

13.Which two files are required in order to start the Veritas Cluster Server Simulator? (Choose two.)

A.main.cf

B.main.cf.previous

C.main.cf.sim

D.types.cf

E.types.cf.previous

F.types.cf.sim

Correct:A D

14.A new file share service group is configured using the FileShare Configuration Wizard. What is the default value for the ForceUnmount attribute for the MountV resource?

A.NONE

B.ALL

C.READ_ONLY

D.READ_WRITE

Correct:C

15.Which resource type attribute is modified to reduce the fault detection time?

A.MonitorTimeOut

B.MonitorInterval

C.FaultOnMonitorTimeouts

D.OnlineMonitorInterval

Correct:B

16.A resource has the ResourceOwner attribute set to Marc. The resource has faulted. Who can clear the fault?

A.any Cluster Administrator

B.any Cluster Guest

C.a Windows domain user named Marc, with or without a Veritas Cluster Server account

D.a Veritas Cluster Server user named Marc, with Cluster Guest priveleges

Correct:A

17.An update to SQL Server makes changes to registry keys on the active system. Which type of resource copies these changes to the target system on failover?

A.RegKey

B.KeyRep

C.Replicate

D.RegRep

Correct:D

18.If a persistent resource in a service group named SG1 faults, Veritas Cluster Server fails the service group over to another system if which two conditions are met? (Choose two.)

A.The ManageFault attribute is set.

B.The AutoFailOver attribute is set.

C.Another system in the cluster is available to which SG1 can failover.

D.The AutoRestart attribute is set.

E.Another system in a different cluster is available to which SG1 can failover.

Correct:B C

19.Given the following information: include “types.cf” cluster default_clus ( UserNames = { aaron = alkdsjfaldjaldfaH, barbara = ieruhrkafhkafhake, carmen = urHkjREOHGkajhuel, dionne = lasdjfasiLjirrljl, edward = asdlfjaielajfLKio, fung = EIwfjsldfjaldfjaM, georgia = LlkjLriLKjrleirka } Administrators = { aaron } Operators = { barbara } CounterInterval = 5 ) group group1 ( SystemList = { sys1 = 0, sys2 = 1 } AutoStartList = { sys1 } Administrators = { carmen } Operators = { dionne } ) group group2 ( SystemList = { sys2 = 0, sys1 = 1 } AutoStartList = { sys2 } Administrators = { edward } Operators = { fung } ) Which two users can persistently freeze group2? (Choose two.)

A.aaron

B.barbara

C.carmen

D.edward

E.fung

F.georgia

Correct:A D

20.A Web hosting company has an eight-node cluster running 60 Web servers. Their failover objective is to distribute the load equally among all nodes. Each Web server has approximately the same load on the servers. All servers are identical. Which FailOverPolicy accomplishes this with the least amount of effort on the part of the administrator?

A.Load

B.Priority

C.RoundRobin

D.Average

Correct:C

21.Which two types of monitoring can be performed on SQLServer2005 resources? (Choose two.)

A.detail monitoring

B.basic level monitoring

C.kernel level monitoring

D.specific monitoring

E.load monitoring

Correct:A B

22.A virtual server name is assigned to an Exchange application service group. Which type of resource assigns the virtual server name to the primary system upon startup?

A.RegRep

B.SMTPSVC

C.Lanman

D.ExchService

Correct:C

23.Which service group attribute indicates whether Veritas Cluster Server initiates an automatic failover when a service group faults?

A.AutoRestart

B.AutoFailOver

C.AutoSwitch

D.AutoStart

Correct:B

24.Which event trigger is called when a service group is unable to fail over?

A.failovernone

B.nofailover

C.sgnofailover

D.failover

Correct:B

25.A service group has a FailOverPolicy of Priority. There are five nodes in the SystemList: S1 = 0, S2 = 1, S3 = 2, S4 = 3, S5 = 4. The service group is currently running on the S3 system. If S3 fails, where will the service group fail over?

A.S1

B.S2

C.S4

D.S5

Correct:A

26.Which statement is true about the violation trigger?

A.A violation trigger must be written as a batch file.

B.A violation trigger and notification are mutually exclusive.

C.A violation trigger must be configured after installation.

D.A violation trigger is configured by default at installation.

Correct:D

27.The ManageFaults service group attribute specifies whether Veritas Cluster Server manages resource failures within the service group by calling the Clean entry point for the resources. Which two values are valid for this service group attribute? (Choose two.)

A.FAILOVER

B.NONE

C.ALL

D.OVERRIDE

E.PRIORITY

Correct:B C

28.A service group named SG1 has AutoFailOver disabled and all resources set to Critical. Which action must be taken to allow failover of the complete service group when a resource faults?

A.set the AutoFailOver attribute of all the resources to 1

B.set the AutoFailOver attribute of the service group to 1

C.set the AutoFailOver attribute of all the resources to Active

D.set the AutoFailOver attribute of the service group to Active

Correct:B

29.An application is experiencing various resource failures. The application administrator wants Veritas Cluster Server to take all resources offline after failure. The entire application should remain offline. Which attribute can accomplish this?

A.ManageFaults

B.FailOverPolicy

C.AutoFailOver

D.Critical

Correct:C

30.An Exchange 2003 Service Group was just created. What is one of the required attributes for the IP resource?

A.Default Gateway

B.MACAddress

C.DNSOptions

D.ADContainer

Correct:B

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PW0-100

Sunday, December 28th, 2008

PW0-100

1. What factors affect the propagation distance of an RF signal?

A. Antenna gain

B. Receiving station sensitivity

C. Fresnel zone blockage

D. Power over Ethernet (PoE) usage

E. Antenna polarization

F. Link budget calculations

Answer: AC

 

2. Given: XYZ Corporation is experiencing connectivity problems with their existing building-to-building bridge link.  A brick wall on the roof of one building is partially blocking the Fresnel Zone, and the connection is dropping many frames.  The administrator moves the antenna to an area not obstructed by the brick wall and then realizes the RF cable cannot reach the new location.

 

If an RF extension cable is used, what are the likely results?

A. The data throughput rate will increase because VSWR will decrease.

B. The Equivalent Isotropically Radiated Power (EIRP) will decrease.

C. The antenna coverage area will decrease.

D. The return loss will increase unless the impedance of the RF extension cable is equal to 50% of the antenna impedance.

E. The likelihood of a direct lightning strike will increase, placing the entire WLAN system at risk.

Answer: BC

 

3. While working on a presentation document in a conference room equipped with a wireless network, you notice that, as you turn your laptop in different directions, your wireless signal strength changes.  What RF signal property is primarily responsible for this change in signal strength?

A. The RF signal’s amplitude is changing due to a change in the visual line-of-sight.

B. The RF signal’s wavelength is being affected by varying antenna gain.

C. The RF signal’s multipath is changing the amount of RF absorbed by nearby objects.

D. The RF signal’s phase is oscillating due to electromagnetic interference (EMI).

E. The RF signal’s polarization is different than the receiving antenna.

Answer: E

4. Which units of measure are used to describe a calculable power quantity?

A. dB

B. dBm

C. dBi

D. mW

E. RSSI

F. dBd

Answer: BD

 

5. In a long-distance RF link, what statement about Fade Margin is true?

A. Fade Margin is the amount of signal strength in addition to the Link Budget.

B. The Fade Margin of a long-distance RF link does not account for antenna gain.

C. Fade Margin is rarely taken into account on a long-distance RF link.

D. Fade Margin and Jamming Margin are synonymous, interchangeable terms.

Answer: A

 

6. What phrase describes the effect of increasing the distance that an RF wave travels when the RF antenna lobe is focused in a desired direction?

A. Polar Extension

B. Active Amplification

C. Beam Compression

D. Passive Gain

E. Phased Array Propagation

Answer: D

 

7. What is a valid type of lightning arrestor used with 802.11 wireless LANs?

A. Coaxial arrestor with a metal oxide varistor (MOV) input circuit

B. Parallel tuned tank-circuit arrestor

C. Coaxial arrestor with a gas discharge tube

D. Inductor-based load-sensing arrestor

Answer: C

 

8. Given: ABC University provides wireless access to campus buildings from their Data Center building. ABC has installed a tower on the Data Center building with a sectorized omnidirectional antenna array using 90 of horizontal beamwidth per sector.

 

What is the next step in configuring the antenna array?

A. Calculate Earth Bulge into the System Operating Margin (SOM).

B. Configuring the downtilt of each antenna in the array.

C. Providing DC power to each antenna in the array.

D. Adjusting each antenna’s beamwidths for optimal gain.

Answer: B

 

9. Given: A wireless LAN transmitter that emits a 100 mW signal is connected to a cable with a 3 dB loss. If the cable is connected to an antenna with a 10 dBi gain, what is the EIRP at the antenna element?

A. 50 mW

B. 250 mW

C. 500 mW

D. 750 mW

E. 1000 mW

Answer: C

 

10. What causes an excessive Voltage Standing Wave Ratio (VSWR) in an 802.11a WLAN?

A. Mismatched impedance between devices in series with the main RF signal

B. Reflected DC current on the main RF signal line

C. Scattered RF signal along the main signal path

D. Inductance (crosstalk) between adjacent conductors

Answer: A

 

11. What are some common specifications for 802.11 WLAN antennas?

A. Spectral Purity Rating

B. Frequency Range in MHz

C. Impedance in Ohms

D. VSWR Rating

E. Return Loss Rating

F. Polarization

Answer: BCDF

 

12. What word describes an RF signal that bounces off a smooth or coated surface and changes direction?

A. Diffraction

B. Reflection

C. Refraction

D. Diffusion

E. Scattering

Answer: B

 

13. What is the most common mount type for installing a wireless LAN antenna to an outdoor mast (pole)?

A. Suction cups with threaded posts

B. Perforated radome enclosure

C. Magnetic mount with bulkhead adapter

D. U-bolt with base clamp

E. Tilt-n-swivel universal mount with ratchet adjustment

Answer: D

 

14. What determines the orientation of an RF wave as it leaves the antenna element?

A. Propagation Pitch

B. Polarization

C. Wave Front Trajectory

D. Signal Focus Angle

E. Acclimatization

Answer: B

 

15. In 802.11a WLANs, what statements are true concerning the use of Orthogonal Frequency Division Multiplexing (OFDM)?

A. Six (6) “pilot” sub-carriers are used as a reference to disregard frequency and phase shifts of the signal during transmission.

B. OFDM transmissions in the lower U-NII band are limited to 40 mW.

C. 16QAM modulation is used at the 54 Mbps data rate.

D. The OFDM PHY is divided into two sub-layers, the LLC and PLCP.

E. Forty-eight (48) sub-carriers are used as parallel symbol transmission paths.

Answer: BE

 

16. You have been hired by ABC Company to troubleshoot their 802.11abgh-compliant, Wi-Fi-certified access point and wireless client devices.  After completing a site survey, you identify five neighboring 802.11b access points belonging to XYZ Company; one on channel 1, three on channel 6, and one on channel 11.  To best avoid co-channel and adjacent channel interference, what suggested change is most appropriate?

A. Configure ABC Company’s access point to use channel 1, 802.11g OFDM-only mode, and to operate in PCF mode.

B. Configure ABC Company’s access point to use channel 3, 802.11g-standard mode, and to use the RTS/CTS protection mechanism all the time.

C. Configure ABC Company’s access point to use 802.11a with dynamic frequency selection (DFS).

D. There is no available configuration that would avoid co-channel or adjacent-channel inteference in this situation.

Answer: C

 

17. What facts should you consider when choosing a spread spectrum technology for your wireless LAN network?

A. An 802.11b Direct Sequence Spread Spectrum (DSSS) signal offers higher data rates and is less susceptible to narrowband interference than an 802.11 Frequency Hopping Spread Spectrum system.

B. While 802.11g devices can use either DSSS or OFDM technology, 802.11a devices only support OFDM.  Therefore 802.11g devices always use OFDM to communicate with 802.11a devices.

C. When 802.11b devices are present in an 802.11g BSS, the use of DSSS will diminish network throughput significantly over a purely OFDM environment.

D. An 802.11g system supporting only the data rates required by the 802.11g amendment can interoperate with 802.11b devices.

E. 802.11g systems use OFDM technology to obtain speeds equal to 802.11a systems and to communicate with 802.11b devices.

Answer: CD

 

18. What device feature is user configurable for 802.11i-compliant wireless LAN client devices?

A. 802.1Q Tagging

B. SNMP Community Strings

C. TKIP Configuration Parameters

D. RADIUS Server IP Port

E. EAP Authentication Type

Answer: E

 

19. What IEEE documents specify methodologies for seamless roaming between access points?

A. 802.11j

B. 802.11d

C. 802.11F

D. 802.11s

E. 802.11N

F. 802.11r

Answer: C

 

20. According to the 802.11g amendment, how much separation is required between the center frequencies of non-overlapping ERP channels?

A. 10 MHz

B. 11 MHz

C. 20 MHz

D. 22 MHz

E. 25 MHz

F. 30 MHz

Answer: E

 

21. The IEEE 802.11-1999 (R2003) standard and the 802.11b and 802.11g amendments specify the use of DSSS and OFDM spread spectrum technology for data transmission within the 2.4 GHz ISM band in accordance with regulatory agency requirements of the FCC (US), IC (Canada), and ETSI (Europe).  What is the specified frequency range for data transmission within the 2.4 GHz ISM band?

A. 2.4020 ?2.4950 GHz

B. 2.4010 - 2.4750 GHz

C. 2.4000 - 2.4725 GHz

D. 2.4000 - 2.4835 GHz

Answer: D

 

22. What factors influence the application layer throughput of an 802.11g client on an IEEE 802.11g wireless LAN?

A. Number of simultaneous 802.11g clients using the same access point

B. Antenna height of the access point

C. Use of VPN tunnels across the wireless LAN by the 802.11g client

D. Roaming handoff speed between access points

E. Use of integrated antennas (versus detachable antennas) on the 802.11g client

F. Association of an 802.11b client to the same 802.11g access point as the 802.11g client

Answer: ACF

 

23. The 802.11-1999 (R2003) standard, excluding amendments, specifies how much separation between the center frequencies of non-overlapping DSSS channels?

A. 20 MHz

B. 25 MHz

C. 28 MHz

D. 30 MHz

Answer: D

 

24. Given: A company has several stations connected to a single radio access point, and all stations are actively transmitting and receiving in the BSS. What factors affect the amount of wireless bandwidth available to each station?

A. Number of actively transmitting stations associated to the access point

B. Beacon interval value configured in the access point

C. Co-located access points on non-overlapping channels

D. Distance from the access point to the most distant station

E. The layer 3 protocol used by each station to transmit data over the wireless link

Answer: AD

 

25. When using 802.3af-compliant Power-over-Ethernet switches at the network edge, what situation has the potential to adversely affect the proper operation of your 802.3af-compliant access points?

A. A large number of 802.3af-compliant VoIP phones are attached to the same Ethernet switch.

B. Access points that do not support the 802.3af standard are attached to the same Ethernet switch.

C. The Ethernet switch’s uplink ports are not connected to an 802.3af-compliant core or distribution Ethernet switch.

D. PoE is provided on both 10/100 and 1000BaseTx ports on the same Ethernet switch.

Answer: A

 

26. Given: XYZ Company has decided to install an 802.11a/g wireless LAN to support 250 wireless users, but they are concerned about network security.  They have decided to implement three mandatory security mechanisms: 1) Role-Based Policy Enforcement, 2) 802.1X/EAP-TTLS, and 3) Bandwidth Management. What devices will meet the security goals?

A. Enterprise Encryption Gateway

B. Wireless Intrusion Prevention System

C. Wireless LAN Switch

D. Enterprise Wireless Gateway

E. Wireless Mesh Router System

F. Residential Wireless Gateway

Answer: CD

 

27. When a station and an access point are operating in Point Coordination Function (PCF) mode, what is true about Contention-Free Period (CFP) operation?

A. CSMA/CA is used by the access point during polling to avoid collisions with stations in the same BSS.

B. Pollable stations contend for the medium to transmit broadcast and multicast traffic.

C. Pollable stations are given medium access priority during the Contention-Free Period (CFP).

D. MAC frame overhead is decreased because pollable stations use smaller MAC headers.

E. Frame fragmentation by stations is prohibited by the 802.11 standard.

Answer: C

 

28. What are valid IEEE 802.11-1999 (R2003) specifications regarding Direct Sequence Spread Spectrum (DSSS) technology?

A. Minimum transmit power should be no less than 0 dBm.

B. Power control should be provided for transmitted power greater than 1 Watt.

C. DSSS systems must be able to interoperate with FHSS systems at the same data rate.

D. The impedance level of the transmit antenna port(s) shall be 75 Ohms if the port is exposed.

E. A basic data rate and an enhanced data rate are specified for the 802.11 DSSS physical layer.

Answer: AE

 

29. Which wireless LAN device type can be implemented as part of the core or access network layers in an enterprise installation?

A. Wireless mesh router

B. Wireless access point

C. Wireless bridge

D. Wireless workgroup bridge

E. Wireless LAN switch

F. Enterprise encryption gateway

Answer: A

 

30. What are some common components of 802.11b wireless LAN client utilities?

A. Site Survey Utility

B. Signal Strength Meter

C. Protocol Analyzer Utility

D. Access Control List (ACL) Configuration

E. Power Management Mode State Monitor

F. User Profile Configuration Tool

G. Real-time Throughput Monitor

Answer: ABF

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E20-593

Saturday, December 27th, 2008

E20-593

1. Which NetWorker command can be used to find out the dates that a specific save set has been backed up?

A.mminfo

B.mmls

C.nsrinfo

D.nsrls

Answer: A

 

2. You are designing a backup schedule for a file system that changes frequently.

Which NetWorker weekly backup schedule results in the fastest recovery?

A.Full incr incr incr incr incr incr

B.Full 1 2 3 4 5 6

C.Full 4 7 4 7 4 7

D.Full 8 8 8 8 8 8

Answer: D

 

3. Which NetWorker server daemon is responsible for starting other server and storage node daemons?

A.nsrd

B.nsrjobd

C.nsrmmdbd

D.nsrmmgd

Answer: A

 

4. You want to make sure that only NetWorker Server S1 can back up client C1’s data. What do you need to do?

A.Add C1 to /nsr/res file on the NetWorker Server S1

B.Add C1 to /nsr/res/clients file on the NetWorker Server S1

C.Add S1 to /nsr/res/permissions on the client machine C1

D.Add S1 to /nsr/res/servers file on the client machine C1

Answer: D

 

5. You noticed that a full level save set is still browsable even after its browse time has expired. What could be the cause?

A.A clone of the save set exists and has a longer retention period

B.Incremental save sets depending upon this full save set are still

browsable

C.The volume containing the save set is still browsable

D.There was a read error on the volume containing the save set, giving it

a “suspect” status

Answer: B

 

6. The status of a volume was prematurely set to full. Which command can be used to change the status of the volume to continue writing to it?

A.jbedit

B.mminfo

C.nsrck

D.nsrmm

Answer: D

 

7. You are designing a solution for a customer using NetWorker and  PowerSnap, to create and back up copy on write (CoW) snapshots of a STD device on a DMX-3 accessed from a Solaris 9 application host. The STD volume size is 300 GB with a change rate of 10%.

What is the minimum VDEV (Virtual Device) size needed?

A.30 GB

B.270 GB

C.300 GB

D.330 GB

Answer: C

 

8. Which NetWorker Management Console server daemon acts as a mini web server and responds to the initial http request from console clients?

A.dbsrv9

B.gstd

C.gsttclsh

D.nsrd

Answer: C

 

9. Which NetWorker feature allows writing more than one save set at a time?

A.Advanced file type device

B.Multiplexing

C.Open tape format

D.Remote backup device

Answer: B

 

10. A customer wants to back up two NetWorker clients at the same time every day.

Which NetWorker resource is configured to include both clients?

A.Group

B.Policy

C.Pool

D.Schedule

Answer: A

 

11. Which NetWorker process initiates negotiation with nsrd during a client-initiated backup?

A.nsrexecd

B.nsrindexd

C.nsrlcpd

D.nsrmmdbd

Answer: A

 

12. Which NetWorker daemon is responsible for the communication between nsrjb and the user interface?

A.nsrd

B.nsrexecd

C.nsrlcpd

D.nsrmmgd

Answer: D

 

13. Which NetWorker process runs on each storage node?

A.nsrd

B.nsrexecd

C.nsrjobd

D.nsrmmd

Answer: D

 

14. What manages a NetWorker remote device?

A.A host outside the NetWorker data zone

B.A storage node other than the NetWorker server

C.Another NetWorker server

D.Remote administration tools

Answer: B

 

15. In an EDL environment, what describes the use of Tape Cloning with the embedded storage node once the data has been backed up to virtual tape?

A.Backup application issues clone command; EDL copies save sets to

physical tape with different barcode

B.Backup application issues clone command; EDL copies save sets to

physical tape with same barcode

C.Backup application issues eject command; EDL moves backup data to

physical tape with different barcode

D.Backup application issues eject command; EDL moves backup data to

physical tape with same barcode

Answer: A

 

16. A company wants to use a CX3-80 with FLARE 24 as a backup-to-disk destination device. ATA disks are being included as part of the solution.

Which RAID type should be used?

A.RAID 0

B.RAID 3

C.RAID 5

D.RAID 1/0

Answer: C

 

17. You are configuring two LUNs with 1.5 TB each in a CLARiiON CX3-80.

They will be used as backup-to-disk destination devices on a single Windows NetWorker server.

Which license (option) is needed?

A.ClientPak

B.Disk Backup

C.Storage Node

D.Virtual Tape Library

Answer: B

 

18. Which process monitors active recover sessions?

A.ansrd

B.nsrd

C.nsrdbd

D.nsrexecd

Answer: A

 

19. Which Celerra NS/CLARiiON tool is used to replicate both data and catalog to a remote site?

A.SRDF

B.MirrorView

C.Celerra SnapSure

D.Celerra Replicator

Answer: B

 

20. In a Windows environment, the NetWorker nsrd process will not start because the resource database is corrupt.

How can the resource information be recovered?

A.Remove …\nsr\index, start nsrd, and run mmrecov

B.Remove …\nsr\res, start nsrd, and run mmrecov

C.Rename …\nsr\index, start nsrd, and run recover

D.Rename …\nsr\mm, start nsrd, and run mmrecov

Answer: B

 

21. A CX3-80 with ATA storage has been configured as a backup-to-disk destination device, and LUNs have been presented to a Windows 2003 SP1 Enterprise host.

Which tool is used to fix the track boundaries misalignment?

A.Disk Management

B.Diskpar

C.Diskpart

D.Navisphere

Answer: C

 

22. What is a characteristic of an advanced file type device in NetWorker?

A.Can only clone to another advanced file type device

B.Duplicate media database records

C.Requires a separate pool

D.Save sets are stored in separate files in a flat directory format

Answer: B

 

23. Click the Exhibit button.

In the exhibit shown, LUN 1 is the CLARiiON LUN mounted on the application server and S1 is a copy on write (CoW) snapshot of LUN 1. The solution is designed using NetWorker, PowerSnap and SnapView.

Which path is taken by the data while performing an instant recovery of files from Snapshot S1 to LUN 1?

 

A.From S1 to LUN1 within the CLARiiON array

B.Over the LAN from the PowerSnap Data Mover host to the application server host

C.Over the LAN from the PowerSnap Data Mover host to the NetWorker server and then to the application server host

D.Over the SAN from the PowerSnap Data Mover host to the application server host

Answer: B

 

24. Which feature is supported when using an advanced file type device with NetWorker?

A.Multiple backups and multiple recoveries, performed simultaneously

B.Multiple backups and one recovery, performed simultaneously

C.Multiplexing

D.Spanning of save sets onto another volume

Answer: A

 

25. Your customer wants to keep all backups onsite for possible restores.

They also need to store all backups at an offsite location for disaster recovery purposes.

Which backup strategy best meets this requirement?

A.Backup-to-disk

B.Cloning

C.Mirroring

D.Staging

Answer: B

 

26. A customer has two tape drives configured to a NetWorker storage node that is currently backing up six clients. How many nsrmmd processes are running now?

A.1

B.2

C.4

D.6

Answer: B

 

27. In an EDL environment, what is a benefit of using an embedded storage node?

A.Better use of virtual drives

B.Increased backup client scalability

C.Optimized backup media utilization

D.Visibility on cloning operations performed by the EDL

Answer: D

 

28. A company wants to move to a backup-to-disk solution, and is considering Celerra. What is an advantage of this solution?

A.Built-in compression

B.Fragments file system to improve writes

C.Hides storage complexity

D.Sequential access to improve performance

Answer: C

 

29. A customer has four tape drives configured to a NetWorker storage node that is currently backing up 10 clients. How many nsrmmd processes are running now?

A.1

B.4

C.10

D.14

Answer: B

 

30. Click the Exhibit button.

You are backing up your data every day at midnight as shown in the exhibit. You have a failure on day 5 at 11 P.M.

How many backups must be recovered?

 

A.1

B.2

C.3

D.4

Answer: A

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E20-593

Friday, December 26th, 2008

E20-593

1. Which NetWorker command can be used to find out the dates that a specific save set has been backed up?

A.mminfo

B.mmls

C.nsrinfo

D.nsrls

Answer: A

 

2. You are designing a backup schedule for a file system that changes frequently.

Which NetWorker weekly backup schedule results in the fastest recovery?

A.Full incr incr incr incr incr incr

B.Full 1 2 3 4 5 6

C.Full 4 7 4 7 4 7

D.Full 8 8 8 8 8 8

Answer: D

 

3. Which NetWorker server daemon is responsible for starting other server and storage node daemons?

A.nsrd

B.nsrjobd

C.nsrmmdbd

D.nsrmmgd

Answer: A

 

4. You want to make sure that only NetWorker Server S1 can back up client C1’s data. What do you need to do?

A.Add C1 to /nsr/res file on the NetWorker Server S1

B.Add C1 to /nsr/res/clients file on the NetWorker Server S1

C.Add S1 to /nsr/res/permissions on the client machine C1

D.Add S1 to /nsr/res/servers file on the client machine C1

Answer: D

 

5. You noticed that a full level save set is still browsable even after its browse time has expired. What could be the cause?

A.A clone of the save set exists and has a longer retention period

B.Incremental save sets depending upon this full save set are still

browsable

C.The volume containing the save set is still browsable

D.There was a read error on the volume containing the save set, giving it

a “suspect” status

Answer: B

 

6. The status of a volume was prematurely set to full. Which command can be used to change the status of the volume to continue writing to it?

A.jbedit

B.mminfo

C.nsrck

D.nsrmm

Answer: D

 

7. You are designing a solution for a customer using NetWorker and  PowerSnap, to create and back up copy on write (CoW) snapshots of a STD device on a DMX-3 accessed from a Solaris 9 application host. The STD volume size is 300 GB with a change rate of 10%.

What is the minimum VDEV (Virtual Device) size needed?

A.30 GB

B.270 GB

C.300 GB

D.330 GB

Answer: C

 

8. Which NetWorker Management Console server daemon acts as a mini web server and responds to the initial http request from console clients?

A.dbsrv9

B.gstd

C.gsttclsh

D.nsrd

Answer: C

 

9. Which NetWorker feature allows writing more than one save set at a time?

A.Advanced file type device

B.Multiplexing

C.Open tape format

D.Remote backup device

Answer: B

 

10. A customer wants to back up two NetWorker clients at the same time every day.

Which NetWorker resource is configured to include both clients?

A.Group

B.Policy

C.Pool

D.Schedule

Answer: A

 

11. Which NetWorker process initiates negotiation with nsrd during a client-initiated backup?

A.nsrexecd

B.nsrindexd

C.nsrlcpd

D.nsrmmdbd

Answer: A

 

12. Which NetWorker daemon is responsible for the communication between nsrjb and the user interface?

A.nsrd

B.nsrexecd

C.nsrlcpd

D.nsrmmgd

Answer: D

 

13. Which NetWorker process runs on each storage node?

A.nsrd

B.nsrexecd

C.nsrjobd

D.nsrmmd

Answer: D

 

14. What manages a NetWorker remote device?

A.A host outside the NetWorker data zone

B.A storage node other than the NetWorker server

C.Another NetWorker server

D.Remote administration tools

Answer: B

 

15. In an EDL environment, what describes the use of Tape Cloning with the embedded storage node once the data has been backed up to virtual tape?

A.Backup application issues clone command; EDL copies save sets to

physical tape with different barcode

B.Backup application issues clone command; EDL copies save sets to

physical tape with same barcode

C.Backup application issues eject command; EDL moves backup data to

physical tape with different barcode

D.Backup application issues eject command; EDL moves backup data to

physical tape with same barcode

Answer: A

 

16. A company wants to use a CX3-80 with FLARE 24 as a backup-to-disk destination device. ATA disks are being included as part of the solution.

Which RAID type should be used?

A.RAID 0

B.RAID 3

C.RAID 5

D.RAID 1/0

Answer: C

 

17. You are configuring two LUNs with 1.5 TB each in a CLARiiON CX3-80.

They will be used as backup-to-disk destination devices on a single Windows NetWorker server.

Which license (option) is needed?

A.ClientPak

B.Disk Backup

C.Storage Node

D.Virtual Tape Library

Answer: B

 

18. Which process monitors active recover sessions?

A.ansrd

B.nsrd

C.nsrdbd

D.nsrexecd

Answer: A

 

19. Which Celerra NS/CLARiiON tool is used to replicate both data and catalog to a remote site?

A.SRDF

B.MirrorView

C.Celerra SnapSure

D.Celerra Replicator

Answer: B

 

20. In a Windows environment, the NetWorker nsrd process will not start because the resource database is corrupt.

How can the resource information be recovered?

A.Remove …\nsr\index, start nsrd, and run mmrecov

B.Remove …\nsr\res, start nsrd, and run mmrecov

C.Rename …\nsr\index, start nsrd, and run recover

D.Rename …\nsr\mm, start nsrd, and run mmrecov

Answer: B

 

21. A CX3-80 with ATA storage has been configured as a backup-to-disk destination device, and LUNs have been presented to a Windows 2003 SP1 Enterprise host.

Which tool is used to fix the track boundaries misalignment?

A.Disk Management

B.Diskpar

C.Diskpart

D.Navisphere

Answer: C

 

22. What is a characteristic of an advanced file type device in NetWorker?

A.Can only clone to another advanced file type device

B.Duplicate media database records

C.Requires a separate pool

D.Save sets are stored in separate files in a flat directory format

Answer: B

 

23. Click the Exhibit button.

In the exhibit shown, LUN 1 is the CLARiiON LUN mounted on the application server and S1 is a copy on write (CoW) snapshot of LUN 1. The solution is designed using NetWorker, PowerSnap and SnapView.

Which path is taken by the data while performing an instant recovery of files from Snapshot S1 to LUN 1?

 

A.From S1 to LUN1 within the CLARiiON array

B.Over the LAN from the PowerSnap Data Mover host to the application server host

C.Over the LAN from the PowerSnap Data Mover host to the NetWorker server and then to the application server host

D.Over the SAN from the PowerSnap Data Mover host to the application server host

Answer: B

 

24. Which feature is supported when using an advanced file type device with NetWorker?

A.Multiple backups and multiple recoveries, performed simultaneously

B.Multiple backups and one recovery, performed simultaneously

C.Multiplexing

D.Spanning of save sets onto another volume

Answer: A

 

25. Your customer wants to keep all backups onsite for possible restores.

They also need to store all backups at an offsite location for disaster recovery purposes.

Which backup strategy best meets this requirement?

A.Backup-to-disk

B.Cloning

C.Mirroring

D.Staging

Answer: B

 

26. A customer has two tape drives configured to a NetWorker storage node that is currently backing up six clients. How many nsrmmd processes are running now?

A.1

B.2

C.4

D.6

Answer: B

 

27. In an EDL environment, what is a benefit of using an embedded storage node?

A.Better use of virtual drives

B.Increased backup client scalability

C.Optimized backup media utilization

D.Visibility on cloning operations performed by the EDL

Answer: D

 

28. A company wants to move to a backup-to-disk solution, and is considering Celerra. What is an advantage of this solution?

A.Built-in compression

B.Fragments file system to improve writes

C.Hides storage complexity

D.Sequential access to improve performance

Answer: C

 

29. A customer has four tape drives configured to a NetWorker storage node that is currently backing up 10 clients. How many nsrmmd processes are running now?

A.1

B.4

C.10

D.14

Answer: B

 

30. Click the Exhibit button.

You are backing up your data every day at midnight as shown in the exhibit. You have a failure on day 5 at 11 P.M.

How many backups must be recovered?

 

A.1

B.2

C.3

D.4

Answer: A

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910-620

Monday, December 22nd, 2008

910-620

1.Which statement describes a standard attribute in Mac OS X v10.5 directory services?

A.An attribute defined by RFC2307

B.An attribute required by Mac OS X v10.5 to publish services with Bonjour

C.An attribute required by Open Directory to support network logins in Mac OS X v10.5

D.An attribute in an Open Directory record that includes default mappings to one or more native attributes in a local or connected directory

Correct:D

2.In Mac OS X v10.5, which command should you enter in Terminal to send a HUP signal to a process?

A.sig

B.kill

C.stop

D.signal

Correct:B

3.In a default installation of Mac OS X v10.5, which command should you enter in Terminal to search for a user named “kim” in all directory domains in your search path?

A.dscl localhost read /Search/Users/kim

B.dscl localhost read /Default/Users/kim

C.dscl localhost read /127.0.0.1/Users/kim

D.dscl localhost read /Local/Default/Users/kim

Correct:A

4.Which attribute in a Mac OS X network user account stores the network location of the user’s home folder?

A.The UserHome attribute in the mount record

B.The VFSLinkDir attribute in the mount record

C.The ExportDirectory attribute in the computer record

D.The HomeDirectory attribute in the user account record

Correct:D

5.A Mac OS X v10.5 computer is bound to an Active Directory server using the Active Directory plug-in in Directory Access. Using the default configuration of the plug-in, what is the Mac OS X user ID number for a user account provided by the Active Directory server?

A.The user ID number is always set to 500.

B.The user ID number is the value stored in the user account??s UID attribute.

C.The user ID number is generated based on the user account??s Globally Unique ID (GUID).

D.The user ID number is a randomly generated value that does not conflict with any user IDs used by the local user records.

Correct:C

6.As an Apple Certified System Administrator in Pass4sure Company. Your company has a Mac OS X Server v10.5 computer. There is one Open Directory master with many replicas. But it fails to work fine. How should you promote one of the replicas to master and have all the other replicas look to the new master?

A.You should use Server Admin to change one of the Open Directory replicas to a master, and then change all of the remaining Open Directory replicas to standalone servers, and back to replicas.

B.You should use dsconfigldap to change one of the Open Directory replicas to a master, and then use Server Admin to change all of the remaining Open Directory replicas to standalone servers, and back to replicas.

C.You should use Server Admin to change one of the Open Directory replicas to a master, and then change the address of the Open Directory master on all of the remaining replicas, without changing the role of the replicas.

D.You should use dscl to change one of the Open Directory replicas to a master, and then use serveradmin to change the address of the Open Directory master on all of the replicas, without changing the role of the replicas.

Correct:A

7.As an Apple Certified System Administrator in Pass4sure Company. Your company has a Mac OS X Server v10.5 computer. You are configuring a Mac OS X Server v10.5 computer to search multiple directory domains. How to specify the order in which the server searches the directories when authenticating users?

A.You should define a custom search path in the Authentication pane of Directory Utility.

B.You should run slapconfig -setauthmechanisms and specify the directory domain search order.

C.You should modify the mapping for the AuthenticationAuthority attribute in the Mappings pane of Directory Utility.

D.You should configure the computer account and enter the authentication search path in the Advanced pane of Workgroup Manager.

Correct:A

8.As an Apple Certified System Administrator in Pass4sure Company. Your company has a Mac OS X Server v10.5 computer. GeneratedUIDs provide for user identification in which TWO contexts?

A.file ACLs

B.file ownership

C.password policies

D.group membership

Correct:A D

9.A search base for an LDAP request describes the location in the LDAP hierarchy where the search will begin.

A.TRUE

B.FALS

Correct:A

10.A search base for an LDAP request describes the client application making the search request

A.TRUE

B.FALS

Correct:B

11.A search base for an LDAP request describes the network path to the LDAP server that the request will search

A.TRUE

B.FALS

Correct:B

12.A search base for an LDAP request describes the directory services data types that correspond to the LDAP entry being searched

A.TRUE

B.FALS

Correct:B

13.As an Apple Certified System Administrator in Pass4sure Company. Your company has a Mac OS X Server v10.5 computer. In a default configuration of a Mac OS X v10.5 computer, ___ folder will contain Open Directory logs.

A./Library/Logs/DirectoryService/

Correct:A

14.As an Apple Certified System Administrator in Pass4sure Company. Your company has a Mac OS X Server v10.5 computer. Please point out which type of entry in an LDAP schema defines the record type(s) that the LDAP directory supports?

A.OID base

B.object class

C.syntax definition

D.attribute definition

Correct:B

15.As an Apple Certified System Administrator in Pass4sure Company. Your company has a Mac OS X Server v10.5 computer. You want to add a user to an Open Directory master. What should you do to achieve it without stopping the DirectoryService process to avoid data corruption?

A.You should use command-line tool dscl

B.You should use command-line tool slapadd

C.You should use command-line tool slapconfig

D.You should use command-line tool slappasswd

Correct:A

16.As an Apple Certified System Administrator in Pass4sure Company. Your company has a Mac OS X Server v10.5 computer. You want a Mac OS X v10.5 computer to mount a network volume dynamically over AFP when users log in to the computer. Which TWO attributes must be defined in the mount record?

A.You should define the attribute Export

B.You should define the attribute MountDir

C.You should define the attribute VFSOpts

D.You should define the attribute VFSType

Correct:C D

17.As an Apple Certified System Administrator in Pass4sure Company. Your company has a Mac OS X Server v10.5 computer, how to enable or disable debug logging for the DirectoryService process?

A.You should enter the command killall -USR1 DirectoryService in Terminal.

B.You should select Detailed Logging in the Open Directory service pane in Server Admin,

C.You should enter the command defaults write com.apple.DirectoryService LogLevel debug in Terminal.

D.You should enter the command serveradmin settings dirserv:loggingAttributes:logLevel = “debug” in Terminal.

Correct:A

18.As an Apple Certified System Administrator in Pass4sure Company. Your company has a Mac OS X Server v10.5 computer .When a Kerberos client authenticates with a kerberized service, how does the kerberized service determine that the client has a service ticket from an authentic KDC?

A.If the service ticket is signed with the KDC’s public key.

B.If the service ticket is signed with the user’s private key.

C.If the service ticket is encrypted with the service’s public key.

D.If the service ticket is encrypted with the service’s private key.

Correct:D

19.As an Apple Certified System Administrator in Pass4sure Company. Your company has a Mac OS X Server v10.5 computer. Where in the Mac OS X v10.5 file system are user accounts for the /Local/Default directory domain stored?

A./var/db/netinfo/local.nidb

B./etc/openldap/Local/Default

C./var/db/mysql/dslocal/Default

D./var/db/dslocal/nodes/Default/users/

Correct:D

20.As an Apple Certified System Administrator in Pass4sure Company. Your company has a Mac OS X Server v10.5 computer. One Mac OS X v10.5 computer client is bound to an Open Directory master. How does the client obtain the mapping of standard Directory Service attributes to native LDAP attributes?

A.It uses mapping information provided in DHCP Option 95.

B.It performs an LDAP query on the Open Directory master, searching for a record named “macosxodconfig” which contains the mapping.

C.It performs a series of LDAP queries on the Open Directory master and reviews the whole directory tree, then builds the mapping based on the object classes it finds.

D.It performs an LDAP query on the Open Directory master, searching for a record named “macosxodschema” which contains the schema. The client builds the mapping from the schema.

Correct:B

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1Z0-055

Sunday, December 21st, 2008

1Z0-055

1. Examine the following PL/SQL block:

SET SERVEROUTPUT ON

SET LONG 10000

DECLARE report clob;

BEGIN

report := DBMS_SPM.EVOLVE_SQL_PLAN_BASELINE();

DBMS_OUTPUT.PUT_LINE(report);

END;

 

Which statement describes the effect of the execution of the above PL/SQL block?

A. The plan baselines are verified with the SQL profiles.

B. All fixed plan baselines are converted into nonfixed plan baselines.

C. All the nonaccepted SQL profiles are accepted into the plan baseline.

D. The nonaccepted plans in the SQL Management Base are verified with the existing plan baselines.

Answer: D

 

2. View the Exhibit to examine the details for an incident.

Which statement is true regarding the status of the incident?

 

A. The DBA is working on the incident and prefers that the incident be kept in the ADR.

B. The incident is now in the Done state and the ADR can select the incident to be purged.

C. The incident has been newly created and is in the process of collecting diagnostic information.

D. The data collection for the incident is complete and the incident can be packaged and sent to Oracle Support.

Answer: D

 

3. You want to convert your existing non-ASM files to ASM files for the database PROD. Which method or command would you use to accomplish this task?

A. Data Pump Export and Import

B. conventional export and import

C. the CONVERT command of RMAN

D. the BACKUP AS COPY.. command of RMAN

Answer: D

4. Which are the prerequisites for performing flashback transactions on your database? (Choose all that apply.)

A. Supplemental log must be enabled.

B. Supplemental log must be enabled for the primary key.

C. Undo retention guarantee for the database must be configured.

D. Execute permission on the DBMS_FLASHBACK package must be granted to the user.

Answer: ABD

 

5. Which method would you use to undo the changes made by a particular transaction without affecting the changes made by other transactions?

A. point-in-time recovery

B. execute the ROLLBACK command with transaction number

C. flashback the database to before the transaction was committed

D. determine all the necessary undo SQL statements from FLASHBACK_TRANSACTION_QUERY and use them for recovery

Answer: D

 

6. When executing a SQL workload, you choose to generate execution plans only, without collecting execution statistics. Which two statements describe the implications of this? (Choose two.)

A. It produces less accurate results of the comparison analysis.

B. It automatically calls the SQL Tuning Advisor for recommendations.

C. It shortens the time of execution and reduces the impact on system resources.

D. Only the changes in the execution plan, and not performance regression, are detected.

Answer: AC

 

7. While deploying a new application module, the software vendor ships the application software along with appropriate SQL plan baselines for the new SQLs being introduced. Which two statements describe the consequences? (Choose two.)

A. The plan baselines can be evolved over time to produce better performance.

B. The newly generated plans are directly placed into the SQL plan baseline without being verified.

C. The new SQL statements initially run with the plans that are known to produce good performance under standard test configuration.

D. The optimizer does not generate new plans for the SQL statements for which the SQL plan baseline has been imported.

Answer: AC

 

8. In your database, the RESULT_CACHE_MODE parameter has been set to MANUAL in the initialization parameter file.

 

You issued the following command:

 

SQL>SELECT /*+ RESULT_CACHE */ sale_category, sum(sale_amt)

         FROM sales

         GROUP BY sale_category;

 

Where would the result of this query be stored?

A. PGA

B. large pool

C. shared pool

D. database buffer cache

Answer: C

 

9. Identify the activities performed as part of the Automatic SQL Tuning process in the maintenance window? (Choose all that apply.)

A. generating the SQL profile

B. testing and accepting the SQL profile

C. generating a list of candidate SQLs for tuning

D. adding tuned SQL plans into the SQL plan baseline

E. tuning each SQL statement in the order of importance

F. generating baselines that include candidate SQL statement for tuning

Answer: ABCE

 

10. You performed an incomplete recovery and opened the database with the RESETLOGS option. The LOG_ARCHIVE_FORMAT parameter is set to ‘ora_%t_%s_%r.log’. Which statement regarding the archived redo log files, created in an earlier incarnation of the database, is true?

A. The archived redo log files will be overwritten.

B. The archived redo log files are deleted automatically.

C. The archived redo log files should be moved to some other location.

D. The archived redo log files are still maintained because the file names are unique.

Answer: D

 

11. View the Exhibit for the object interdependency diagram.

 

The PRODUCTS table is used to create the PRODCAT_VW view.

PRODCAT_VW is used in the GET_DATA procedure.

GET_DATA is called in the CHECK_DATA function.

 

A new column PROD_QTY is added to the PRODUCTS table.

 

How does this impact the status of the dependent objects?

 

A. All dependent objects remain valid.

B. Only the procedure and function become invalid and must be recompiled.

C. Only the view becomes invalid and gets automatically revalidated the next time it is used.

D. Only the procedure and function become invalid and get automatically revalidated the next time they are called.

Answer: A

 

12. Which of the following information will be gathered by the SQL Test Case Builder for the problems pertaining to SQL-related problems? (Choose all that apply.)

A. ADR diagnostic files

B. all the optimizer statistics

C. initialization parameter settings

D. PL/SQL functions, procedures, and packages

E. the table and index definitions and actual data

Answer: BCE

 

13. Your system has been upgraded from Oracle Database 10g to Oracle Database 11g. You imported SQL Tuning Sets (STS) from the previous version. After changing the OPTIMIZER_FEATURE_ENABLE parameter to 10.2.0.4 and running the SQL Performance Analyzer, you observed performance regression for a few SQL statements. What would you do with these SQL statements?

A. Set OPTIMIZER_USE_PLAN_BASELINES to FALSE to prevent the use of regressed plans.

B. Capture the plans from the previous version using STS and then load them into the stored outline.

C. Capture the plans from the previous version using STS and then load them into SQL Management Base (SMB).

D. Set OPTIMIZER_CAPTURE_SQL_PLAN_BASELINES to FALSE to prevent the plans from being loaded to the SQL plan baseline.

Answer: C

 

14. Which setting enables the baselines by default in Oracle Database 11g?

A. setting the STATISTICS_LEVEL parameter to TYPICAL

B. adding filters to the Automatic Database Diagnostic Monitor (ADDM)

C. enabling Automated Maintenance Task using Oracle Enterprise Manager

D. setting the OPTIMIZER_USE_PENDING_STATISTICS parameter to TRUE

Answer: A

 

15. An online tablespace, TEST_TBS, is full and you realize that no server-managed tablespace threshold alerts were generated for the TEST_TBS tablespace. What could be the reason, if the TEST_TBS tablespace does not include autoextensible data files?

A. TEST_TBS is a small file tablespace.

B. TEST_TBS is a bigfile tablespace (BFT).

C. TEST_TBS is the default temporary tablespace.

D. TEST_TBS is a dictionary-managed tablespace.

Answer: D

 

16. While performing the backup of the flash recovery area, you notice that one of the archived redo log files is missing. You have multiple destinations for archived redo log files. What implications does it have on the backup of the flash recovery area?

A. The backup succeeds but it would be without the missing archived log.

B. The backup fails because one of the archived redo log files is missing.

C. The backup succeeds because it fails over to one of the alternative archived redo log destinations.

D. During backup, you are prompted for the alternative destination for the missing archived redo log file.

Answer: C

 

17. Which two statements are true with respect to the maintenance window? (Choose two.)

A. A DBA can enable or disable an individual task in all maintenance windows.

B. A DBA cannot change the duration of the maintenance window after it is created.

C. In case of a long maintenance window, all Automated Maintenance Tasks are restarted every four hours.

D. A DBA can control the percentage of the resource allocated to the Automated Maintenance Tasks in each window.

Answer: AD

 

18. View the Exhibit exhibit1.

 

In the CUSTOMERS_OBE table, when the value of CUST_STATE_PROVINCE is “CA”, the value of COUNTRY_ID is “US”

 

View the Exhibit exhibit2 to examine the commands and query plans.

 

The optimizer can sense 8 rows instead of 29 rows, which is the actual number of rows in the table. What can you do to make the optimizer detect the actual selectivity?

 

A. Set the STATISTICS_LEVEL parameter to TYPICAL.

B. Change the STALE_PERCENT value for the CUSTOMERS_OBE table.

C. Set the OPTIMIZER_USE_PENDING_STATISTICS parameter to FALSE.

D. Create extended statistics for the CUST_STATE_PROVINCE and COUNTRY_ID columns.

Answer: D

 

19. You issued the following command:

 

CREATE GLOBAL TEMPORARY TABLE admin_work_area

(startdate DATE,

enddate DATE,

class CHAR(20))

ON COMMIT DELETE ROWS

TABLESPACE tbs_t1;

 

An index is then created on the ADMIN_WORK_AREA temporary table.

 

Which two statements are true regarding the TBS_T1 tablespace in the above command? (Choose two.)

A. It stores only the temporary table but not its indexes.

B. It stores both the temporary table as well as its indexes.

C. It must be a nondefault temporary tablespace for the database.

D. It can be a default or nondefault temporary tablespace for the database.

E. It must be the default temporary tablespace of the user who issues the command.

Answer: BD

 

20. View the Exhibit to examine the error during the database startup.

 

You open an RMAN session for the database instance. To repair the failure, you executed the following as the first command in the RMAN session:

 

RMAN> REPAIR FAILURE;

 

Which statement describes the consequence of the command?

 

A. The command performs the recovery and closes the failures.

B. The command only displays the advice and the RMAN script required for repair.

C. The command produces an error because the ADVISE FAILURE command has not been executed before the REPAIR FAILURE command.

D. The command executes the RMAN script to repair the failure and removes the entry from the Automatic Diagnostic Repository (ADR).

Answer: C

 

21. You are managing an Oracle Database 11g ASM instance with a disk group dg01 having three disks. One of the disks in the disk group becomes unavailable because of power failure. You issued the following command to change the DISK_REPAIR_TIME attribute from 3.6 hours to 5 hours:

 

ALTER DISKGROUP dg01 SET ATTRIBUTE ‘disk_repair_time’ = ‘5h’;

 

To which disks in the disk group will the new value be applicable?

A. all disks in the disk group

B. all disks that are currently in OFFLINE mode

C. all disks that are not currently in OFFLINE mode

D. all disks in the disk group only if all of them are ONLINE

Answer: C

 

22. Which statements are true regarding the Query Result Cache? (Choose all that apply.)

A. It can be set at the system, session, or table level.

B. It is used only across statements in the same session.

C. It can store the results from normal as well as flashback queries.

D. It can store the results of queries based on normal, temporary, and dictionary tables.

Answer: AC

 

23. The Database Resource Manager is automatically enabled in the maintenance window that runs the Automated Maintenance Task. What is the reason for this?

A. to prevent the creation of an excessive number of scheduler job classes

B. to allow the Automated Maintenance Tasks to use system resources without any restriction

C. to allow resource sharing only among the Automated Maintenance Tasks in the maintenance window

D. to prevent the Automated Maintenance Tasks from consuming excessive amounts of system resources

Answer: D

 

24. Examine the following PL/SQL block:

 

DECLARE

   my_plans pls_integer;

BEGIN

my_plans := DBMS_SPM.LOAD_PLANS_FROM_CURSOR_CACHE (sql_id => ?9twu5t2dn5xd?;

END;

 

Which statement is true about the plan being loaded into the SQL plan baseline by the above command?

A. It is loaded with the FIXED status.

B. It is loaded with the ACCEPTED status.

C. It is not loaded with the ENABLED status.

D. It is not loaded with the ACCEPTED status.

Answer: B

 

25. Which statements describe the capabilities of the DBMS_NETWORK_ACL_ADMIN package? (Choose all that apply.)

A. It can be used to allow the access privilege settings for users but not roles.

B. It can be used to allow the access privilege settings for users as well as roles.

C. It can be used to control the time interval for which the access privilege is available to a user.

D. It can be used to selectively restrict the access for each user in a database to different host computers.

E. It can be used to selectively restrict a user’s access to different applications in a specific host computer.

Answer: BCD

 

26. View the Exhibit to examine the replay settings for replay parameters.

 

What is the implication for setting the values for replay parameters? (Choose all that apply.)

 

A. The COMMIT order in the captured workload is preserved during replay.

B. The value 100 in the THINK_TIME_SCALE parameter attempts to make the replay client shorten the think time between calls.

C. The value 100 in the CONNECT_TIME_SCALE parameter attempts to connect all sessions as captured.

D. The value 100 in the THINK_TIME_SCALE parameter attempts to match the captured user think time while replaying.

E. The value 100 in the CONNECT_TIME_SCALE parameter attempts to connect all sessions immediately as soon as the replay begins.

Answer: ACD

 

27. You have three production databases, HRDB, FINDB, and ORGDB, that use the same ASM instance. At the end of the day, while all three production database instances are running, you execute the following command on the ASM instance :

 

SQL> shutdown immediate;

 

What is the result of executing this command?

A. The ASM instance is shut down, but the other instances are still running.

B. It results in an error because other database instances are connected to it.

C. All the instances, including the ASM instance, are shut down in the IMMEDIATE mode.

D. HRDB, FINDB, and ORGDB instances are shut down in the ABORT mode and the ASM instance is shut down in the IMMEDIATE mode.

Answer: B

 

28. The application tables owned by the user TEST in a test database need to be exported to the APPS schema in the production database by using Data Pump. Which option of Data Pump Import would you use to accomplish this?

A. owner

B. touser

C. attach

D. remap_schema

Answer: D

 

29. View the Exhibit to examine the parameters set for your database instance.

 

You execute the following command to perform I/O calibration after the declaration of bind variables in the session that are used in the command:

 

SQL> EXECUTE dbms_resource_manager.calibrate_io( num_physical_disks=>1, -

max_latency=>50, -

max_iops=>:max_iops, -

max_mbps=>:

max_mbps, - actual_latency=>:actual_latency);

 

Which statement describes the consequence?

 

A. The command produces an error.

B. The calibration process runs successfully and populates all the bind variables.

C. The calibration process runs successfully but the latency time is not computed.

D. The calibration process runs successfully but only the latency time is computed.

Answer: A

 

30. What are the advantages of variable extent size support for large ASM files? (Choose two.)

A. It improves performance in the extended cluster configuration by reading from a local copy of an extent.

B. It improves resync operations when the disk comes online after being taken offline for maintenance purposes.

C. This feature enables faster file opens because of the reduction in the amount of memory that is required to store file extents.

D. Fewer extent pointers are needed to describe the file and less memory is required to manage the extent maps in the shared pool.

Answer: CD

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000-100

Friday, December 19th, 2008

000-100

1. What command is used to create an application Workload Partition?

A.mkwpar

B.crwpar

C.wparexec

D.mkappwpar

Answer: C

 

2. A customer wants to use Live Partition Mobility for system maintenance. What is the minimum requirement?

A.PowerHA

B.Virtual I/O server 1.4

C.PowerVM Standard Edition

D.PowerVM Enterprise Edition

Answer: D

 

3. A customer has a requirement for a new LPAR to run SUSE Linux using a SCSI adapter that is not currently supported in Linux. Which of the following solutions should be recommended?

A.Assign the adapter to a VIO Server.

B.Use AIX drivers to install the adapter in the Linux LPAR.

C.Use Linux Affinity in AIX to move the application from SUSE to AIX.

D.NFS mount the disks from an AIX LPAR hosting the SCSI adapter, to the Linux LPAR.

Answer: A

 

4. A system administrator has received a sysplan file to configure a new server. Which of the following is the method to deploy the new server with minimal effort?

A.Copy file on HMC and deploy partitions.

B.Send file to IBM deployment portal for conversion.

C.Copy the file to the managed system and run the deploy application.

D.Execute file in System Planning tool and chose destination server to automatically deploy partitions.

Answer: A

 

5. Which tool is the most cost and time effective for specifying adapter placement on new orders?

A.HMC

B.System planning tool

C.Tivoli Provisioning Manager

D.System planning tool + Workload estimator

Answer: B

 

6. How does a Power 570 need to be installed for optimum cooling?

A.With empty space at the top for free airflow

B.With empty space at the bottom for free airflow

C.In a cold/warm row setup with the hot-row at the back

D.In a cold/warm row setup with the hot-row at the front

Answer: C

 

7. What is the minimum number of power cable(s) that must be connected to power up a 16-core POWER 570 without errors in the managed frame?

A.1

B.2

C.4

D.8

Answer: D

 

8. A customer has a new POWER6 system with 2 partitions that require a large amount of TCP network traffic to pass between them for backup purposes. Which solution provides the greatest throughput?

A.Virtual Ethernet

B.Integrated Virtual Ethernet (IVE)

C.One 10Gb Ethernet adapter assigned to each partition

D.Separate Host Ethernet Adapters (HEA) assigned to each partition

Answer: B

 

9. A customer has ordered a Power 570 with only 4 dual port fibre cards. Which configuration would allow 4 LPARs on this server to have multiple paths, with no single point of failure, for each SAN connection?

A.Assign each LPAR 2 fibre ports, each from a different fibre adapter

B.Dual VIO servers with 2 cards per server and mapping via virtual SCSI adapters

C.One VIO server mapping disks using dual virtual SCSI adapters from the 4 adapters

D.Assign each LPAR a fibre card and ensure each port is mapped to a separate fibre switch

Answer: B

 

10. Why is the “dyntrk” attribute of fcs adapters in AIX important?

A.It enables automatic discovery of cabling changes.

B.It enables fibre channel data packet dynamic tracing.

C.It allows the fibre card in the server to be relocated dynamically.

D.When using an SVC it allows the target LUNs to be migrated to different fabric.

Answer: A

 

 

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Exam : Cisco 640-802

Friday, December 19th, 2008

Exam      :  Cisco 640-802

15. Network topology exhibit:

Output exhibit:

C:\arp -a

Interface:192.168.1.95 — 0×2

  Internet Address    Phycical Address      Type

  192.168.1.254       00-60-0f-2e-14-c6      dynamic

 

You work as a network technician at TestInside and you issued the arp -a command from a host named TestInsideA as shown above.

 

The user of host TestInsideA wants to ping the DSL modem/router at 192.168.1.254. Based on the Host TestInsideA ARP table that is shown in the exhibit, what will host TestInsideA do?

A. send a unicast ARP packet to the DSL modem/router

B. send unicast ICMP packets to the DSL modem/router

C. send Layer 3 broadcast packets to which the DSL modem/router responds

D. send a Layer 2 broadcast that is received by TestInside2, the switch, and the DSL modem/router

Answer: B

 

16. Study the exhibit carefully. Each of these four TestInside switches has been configured with a hostname, as well as being configured to run RSTP. No other configuration changes have been made. Which switch will have only one forwarding interface?

A. TIS-SA

B. TIS-SB

C. TIS-SC

D. TIS-SD

Answer: B

 

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