1.An instructor has just finished the lesson on a topic that is essential to understanding the next topic of the course. Most of the learners are looking at the instructor with blank expressions. When the instructor asks questions to see if the learners understand the concept, most learners look away. Which of the following is the BEST next step for the instructor to take, given the learners’ reactions?
A.Hand out a set of written questions designed to evaluate individual comprehension of the concept.
B.Give the learners a short study break to review any notes they might have taken during the presentation.
C.Continue with the next phase of the lesson and refer back periodically to the concept.
D.Review the main points of the concept and use examples that aid in stimulating discussion.
Correct:D
2.The trainer’s goal is to get the most participation from learners regarding choices that must be made about the next step in training. The trainer realizes that there are several different ways to solve a particular problem and wants learners to agree on the best method. Which of the following methods is MOST appropriate for accomplishing this goal?
A.Lecture
B.Discussion
C.Hands-on activities
D.Independent reading
Correct:B
3.On the second day of a five-day class, it becomes apparent that the trainer will finish the materials by the middle of the fourth day. The client requires the students to attend a full five days of training on the topic. In order to meet the client’s requirement, the trainer should:
A.extend the lunch break by 30 minutes each day and add an additional afternoon break to stretch the time out
B.contact the client after class on the second day to inform them of the status and get approval for ending the class early
C.prepare additional materials after the second day and submit them to the client for approval in order to meet the five-days-of-training requirement
D.inform the class of the estimated early finish and ask them for suggestions on how to fill in the remaining day and a half of training time
Correct:C
4.Which of the following techniques is MOST likely to optimize group participation?
A.Calling on learners and asking each a question
B.Handing out sets of written questions
C.Asking a question of the group in general and waiting for a response
D.Making a statement and then asking whether the learners have any questions
Correct:C
5.For this question, decide whether the action makes it likely or unlikely that the trainer will achieve the goal. Select the BEST statement of the reason that the action is likely or unlikely to accomplish the goal. GOAL:To respond in a manner helpful to the rest of the class to a learner who asks relevant questions but asks them frequently. ACTION:Restate the question, if necessary, to clarify it and then direct the question to the class.
A.LIKELY, because the strategy will engage the other learners in answering the questions and will aid their understanding
B.LIKELY, because the class will exert pressure on the learner to stop interrupting the lesson
C.UNLIKELY, because the instructor will be perceived as not knowing the answer
D.UNLIKELY, because adult learners prefer to be given direct responses
Correct:A
6.A trainer is teaching a course in which it appears that the learners differ greatly in what they expect from the course. Which of the following actions should the trainer take to ensure that instruction is effective for this class?
A.Deliver course material exactly as the trainer’s manual specifies.
B.Poll the learners regarding what should be included and eliminated.
C.Have the learners with the highest expectations about the course modify their expectations to fit those of the group.
D.Adjust the course materials and agenda to meet the needs of the learners.
Correct:D
7.Learners complained on evaluation questionnaires that the instructor did not always possess sufficient expertise about course material. Which of the following audiences is MOST likely to need this information?
A.The company that pays to have its employees trained
B.The person who schedules trainers
C.The instructional designer
D.The other instructors who teach the same course
Correct:B
8.A trainer, who has completed a training class, determines that the materials were inadequate for students to meet the learning objectives. The training materials were created by the training center using technical journals and other vendor manuals. Which of the following actions should the trainer take?
A.Ask to meet with the curriculum developers to see if they want help developing materials for the next class.
B.Ask the training center to send supplementary materials to the students in the class.
C.Report the inadequacy and ask the training center staff to contact the curriculum developer to make corrections.
D.Provide the curriculum developer with a specific list of corrections and changes to use for the next course.
Correct:D
9.An experienced instructor has just completed an instructional assignment that the instructor judges to have been unsuccessful. The instructor believes that the difficulty experienced was due in part to the scheduling of the course, which conflicted with the work schedules of many of the learners. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate thing for the instructor to do in this situation?
A.Inform the learners’ supervisors that the planning for the course was inadequate.
B.Downplay the significance of learner comments since the course was not successful.
C.Report observations along with comments from the learners to the training manager.
D.Try to obtain the learners’ work schedules to support the instructor’s judgment about the cause of the problem.
Correct:C
10.To minimize bias in assessing learner attainment of course objectives, a trainer must do which of the following?
A.Measure each learner’s progress from the individual’s starting point.
B.Measure each learner from a choice of standards based on individual learning styles.
C.Measure all learners against the same pre-established standard.
D.Measure all learners by using evaluation techniques that are unobtrusive.
Correct:C
11.An instructor has just finished a lecture in the first class of a course that the instructor is teaching for the first time. The learners were willing to learn, but seemed to have short attention spans. They appeared to lose focus near the end of the class. The instructor believes this problem must be addressed as soon as possible. In this situation, which of the following is the MOST appropriate action for the instructor to take next?
A.Ask the learners whether or not they were all able to hear the lecture.
B.Plan to establish more frequent and direct eye contact with each learner.
C.Plan to ask a series of questions at the end of the next lecture.
D.Assess whether or not the instructor used the best method for presenting the course content to the learners.
Correct:D
12.Two hours before the end of a one-day training course, the instructor is notified that a noisy emergency repair is commencing near the training room. This repair will take at least one hour to complete. If all of the following actions are possible, which is the BEST action for an instructor to take in this situation?
A.Obtain a clip-on microphone for speaking over the distracting noise.
B.Move the class to an available room away from the noise until the repair is completed.
C.Continue the training until the noise becomes too distracting and then dismiss the class.
D.Change the agenda and conduct an informal discussion about the content learned in the course.
Correct:B
13.A trainer has just finished the lesson covering a complex concept that is essential to understanding the next topic of the course. Most of the learners are looking at the instructor with glazed expressions. When the instructor asks questions designed to determine whether the class understands the concept, most learners avert their eyes. The learners’ reactions MOST probably indicate which of the following?
A.They find the content irrelevant to them.
B.They lack understanding of the concept.
C.They have not found the presentation highly motivating.
D.They have spent too much time on the concept.
Correct:B
14.An instructor is introducing a new concept to a class in the form of a lecture. In the last 10 minutes of the lecture, the instructor notices that learners are looking out the window and shuffling papers. Which of the following describes a principle of effective instruction that the instructor MOST likely overlooked in this situation?
A.Organized presentations are essential for holding learner interest.
B.Learners learn best when they are actively involved in the learning process.
C.New concepts are difficult to introduce in a limited time frame.
D.Distractions should be minimized to maximize learning.
Correct:B
15.Learners are being trained to work on a new system that will be introduced to their company in two weeks. The learners are initially frustrated by the new system. The trainer maintains a supportive attitude and assures them that they are doing very well. The class learns how to use the system. Which of the following BEST describes the instructional technique used by the trainer in this situation?
A.Effective use of presentation skills
B.Effective positive reinforcement
C.Effective use of media
D.Effective use of evaluation techniques
Correct:B
16.An instructor asks a difficult review question and realizes that it is beyond the knowledge level of the group. The next step the instructor should take is to:
A.break the question into parts to allow learners to answer it
B.answer the question and move on
C.apologize for asking such a difficult question
D.reteach the material on which the question is based
Correct:A
17.For this question, decide whether the action makes it likely or unlikely that the trainer will achieve the goal. Select the BEST statement of the reason that the action is likely or unlikely to accomplish the goal. GOAL:To assist a small number of learners in a training session who are having difficulty understanding the course text ACTION:The trainer significantly reduces the pace of instruction and regularly calls on the learners who are having difficulty in order to determine whether they understand.
A.LIKELY, because the learners who are having difficulty will pay more attention in the course
B.LIKELY, because the other learners will feel more comfortable with the slowed pace
C.UNLIKELY, because the other learners in the course will want the opportunity to answer more questions
D.UNLIKELY, because the learners who are having difficulty will feel uncomfortable with the increased attention
Correct:D
18.A trainer plans to use handouts to support a presentation. Which of the following would be the LEAST disruptive method of distributing the handouts?
A.Placing the handouts in a convenient location in the room and handing them out as needed during the presentation
B.Allowing learners to pick up the handouts at selected points during the presentation
C.Distributing the handouts along with other course materials before beginning the presentation
D.Referring to the handouts during the presentation and allowing learners to select the ones they want after the presentation is completed
Correct:C
19.An instructor’s effectiveness in knowledge transfer should be measured by:
A.the learners’ achievement of objectives
B.learner satisfaction with the course
C.presentations that are truly memorable
D.the depth and breadth of the course
Correct:A
20.An instructor is planning to break a class of 25 learners into small groups for discussion. Each group will be led by a group leader who has expertise in the subject matter. The function of the group leader is to respond to problems and keep the discussions on topic. Many of the nonleaders have more seniority than the leaders. Which of the following should the instructor consider before implementing this plan?
A.Whether the leaders have sufficient confidence to facilitate the discussion without feeling intimidated or being overbearing
B.Whether the senior group members and the discussion leaders work in close proximity to one another in the company
C.Whether the members with more seniority would prefer to be in discussion groups with one another
D.Whether the discussion leaders perform a similar role on a regular basis in their work areas or have other experience as leaders
Correct:A
21.An instructor has been brought in to take the place of another instructor who the replacement knows was fired for unacceptable behavior at a cocktail party for participants. In this situation, what should be the instructor’s first priority?
A.Demonstrate acceptable personal conduct.
B.Demonstrate content expertise.
C.Demonstrate flexibility in response to learner needs and interests.
D.Demonstrate effective questioning techniques.
Correct:A
22.The design of a course specifies that certain points should be developed using group discussion. Although the instructor recognizes that group discussion is an appropriate method for the material to be covered, the instructor is not comfortable leading group discussions and feels that they tend to get out of control. The instructor would prefer to lecture on the topic or omit it from the course completely. Which of the following should the instructor do?
A.Lecture on the topic.
B.Request learner agreement to omit the topic.
C.Use group discussion as specified.
D.Make participation in the group discussion optional.
Correct:C
23.For this question, decide whether the action makes it likely or unlikely that the instructor will achieve the goal. Select the BEST statement of the reason that the action is likely or unlikely to accomplish the goal. GOAL:To a provide a transition from one topic to another ACTION:During an explanation of a concept, the instructor asks learners to refer to a chapter presented much earlier in the course.
A.LIKELY, because the referencing back to earlier sections provides a positive link between concepts
B.LIKELY, because the states from introductory, intermediate and advanced topic growth are affirmed
C.UNLIKELY, because the logical flow of the courseware designers has been circumvented by this action
D.UNLIKELY, because the moving back and forth between sections may cause the learner to lose focus
Correct:A
24.One learner has been talking to another learner since class began. The other learner appears uncomfortable but continues to respond to the learner’s comments. The instructor continues to teach the class without addressing the situation. Which of the following BEST describes the error the instructor has made in this situation?
A.Failure to control the learning environment effectively
B.Failure to establish and maintain instructor credibility
C.Failure to use instructional methods appropriately
D.Failure to gain sufficient information about the audience
Correct:A
25.An atmosphere conducive to learning is characterized by each of the following EXCEPT:
A.Learners know each others’ names.
B.The instructor asks learners to contribute from their fields of expertise.
C.The instructor emphasizes the need to complete the fixed course agenda.
D.Learners feel free to share personal anecdotes related to the topics when asked.
Correct:C
26.Learners are MOST likely to learn a skill successfully when a topic is presented:
A.in a cluster with other, similar skills
B.just in time for the learner to apply it
C.as part of a summary of related skills
D.as part of a review session prior to an examination
Correct:B
27.An instructor will be teaching a training course in an unfamiliar facility. Which of the following is the MOST important issue for the instructor to take into consideration?
A.Whether the facility’s instructional sites are “state-of-the-art”
B.Whether the facility will be comfortable for the learner
C.Whether the facility has the technical equipment required for the course
D.Whether the facility will permit extending the course to address learners’ interests
Correct:C
28.An instructor is having a difficult time getting the learners to understand a concept. Which of the following actions should the instructor take in this situation?
A.Use frames of reference familiar to the learners.
B.Move on to a less difficult concept.
C.Give learners a reading assignment on the concept.
D.Administer a diagnostic test to identify areas of difficulty.
Correct:A
29.The learners in a course are unfamiliar with course subject matter. In this situation, the MOST appropriate action for the instructor to take is to:
A.invite and accept differences of opinion
B.develop frames of reference common to the learners
C.ask a variety of questions to determine learner understanding
D.prepare comprehensive reading material for pre-course use
Correct:B
30.For this question, decide whether the action makes it likely or unlikely that the trainer will achieve the goal. Select the BEST statement of the reason that the action is likely or unlikely to accomplish the goal. GOAL:To determine whether modifications in instructional delivery made by an instructor were unique requirements for learners in a particular class or whether they reflect a need to redesign a course ACTION:Evaluate the effects of other variables, including the instructional environment, on learner accomplishments.
A.LIKELY, because it will help to isolate the effect on the learners of the instructor’s delivery modifications
B.LIKELY, because modifications in variables such as physical environment can be conveniently measured
C.UNLIKELY, because modifications in instructional delivery only take place to help learners meet course objectives
D.UNLIKELY, because instructional designers prefer to replace rather than redesign courses in response to changing learner requirements
Correct:A
Archive for January, 2009
최신 Tk0-201 덤프
Saturday, January 31st, 2009최신E20-820 덤프
Wednesday, January 28th, 20091. The DKT Society wishes to make a local copy of its 256 GB production LUN for testing purposes. It will be mounted to the Production UNIX host. DKT requires a solution with minimal disruption to its application.
What do you recommend?
A.Create a Snapshot of the production LUN, and start a session. Add the Snapshot to the production host’s Storage Group
B.Use an Incremental SAN Copy Session on the production LUN. Add the new LUN to the production host’s Storage Group
C.Clone the production LUN. Remove the Clone from the Clone Group. Add the new LUN to the production host’s Storage Group
D.Take the production LUN offline. Perform a full SAN Copy. Add the new copy to the production host’s Storage Group, and restart the application
Answer: C
2. ABC Corp. wants to implement an extended distance DR solution for a custom application. Part of this application is transactional with small I/O and is mission critical with an RPO of less than 30 minutes. Another component of this application consists of image repositories and is non-mission critical with an RPO of 24 hours. The link meets the minimum bandwidth requirements; however there is significant latency because of the distance. Which software solution best meets the requirements?
A.MirrorView Synchronous for the mission critical data and MirrorView/A for the image repositories updating every 12 hours
B.MirrorView/A for all data with mission critical data synchronizing every 0 minutes from the end of the last update and image repositories every 12 hours
C.MirrorView Synchronous for all data with the mission critical data constantly synchronizing and the image repositories only synchronizing during the backup windows from midnight to 6:00 AM
D.MirrorView/A for all data with mission critical data synchronizing every 0 minutes from the end of the last update and MirrorView synchronous for image repositories only synchronizing during the backup windows from midnight to 6:00 AM
Answer: B
3. When implementing SAN Copy Incremental over long-distances and the link latency is unknown, which setting will measure latency by sending test I/O to the destination?
A.Set Latency to Auto
B.Set Latency to Test
C.Set Link Bandwidth Auto
D.Set Latency to the lowest setting
Answer: A
4. Which two [2] applications are supported by Replication Manager/SE?
A.NTFS on Windows 2000
B.Oracle 8i on Windows 2000
C.Exchange 5.5 on Windows 2000
D.Exchange 2000 on Windows 2003
Answer: AC
5. CTS, Inc. has an Exchange environment with 3000 users, each generating one IOPS during peak load. CTS’ workload is a 2:1 Read / Write Ratio. Being price sensitive, CTS planned a RAID-5 solution. What should the customer expect to see in terms of IOPS at the back end?
A.3000
B.4000
C.5000
D.6000
Answer: D
6. CDF Inc. wants to purchase a CLARiiON array to add to its SAN. Path Failover and Load Balancing are requirements. CDF already owns and uses DMP on its Symmetrix. What are two [2] solutions you would recommend?
A.Dual HBAs with no cross zoning and DMP
B.Dual HBAs with no cross zoning and PowerPath
C.Multiple HBAs, Multi-path with cross zoning utilizing four FC ports per SP, and DMP
D.Dual HBAs, Multi-path with cross zoning utilizing two FC ports per SP, and PowerPath
E.Multiple HBAs, Multi-path with cross zoning utilizing four FC ports per SP, and PowerPath
Answer: DE
7. Click the Exhibit button.
Review the replication solution shown in the graphic. In the event of production data corruption, which best describes the required steps to recover production data from the remote Snapshot?
A.Unmount production LUNs, roll back Snap, restore mirror, mount production LUNs
B.Unmount production LUNs, fracture, roll back Snap, synchronize, promote mirror, mount production LUNs
C.Unmount production LUNs, promote mirror, fracture, roll back Snap, synchronize, promote mirror, mount production LUNs
D.Unmount production LUNs, roll back Snap ,promote mirror, fracture, synchronize, promote mirror, mount production LUNs
Answer: C
8. The MirrorView/A promotion script has lines which perform the following operations:
1: Flush the Primary Image buffers
2: Synchronize the Secondary Image
3: Wait until the synchronization completes
4: Promote the Secondary Image
What would you change to ensure that the script still works in the event of a disaster?
A.Change line 1 to flush the Secondary Image buffers
B.Change line 3 to check for the Synchronized or Consistent state
C.Add a line 5 to check that the Primary Image is demoted successfully
D.Add a delay between steps 1 and 2 to allow the buffers to complete flushing
Answer: B
9. Your customer’s file system application uses small, multi-threaded, sequential I/O. The company noticed a decrease in overall performance on its server. What do you recommend to fix the problem?
A.Increase the server memory
B.Increase the number of threads
C.Set file system parameters to minimize file system coalescing
D.Set file system parameters to maximize file system coalescing
Answer: C
10. HHZ Management Inc. keeps its data on a 512GB 4+4 RAID-1/0 LUN, bound on 73GB 15Krpm drives. HHZ will use a SnapView Snapshot for backup purposes, and keep the session active for the full 24-hour period between backups. You investigate its environment and determine the following:
The application generates random 2kb I/Os, with a read/write ratio of 4:1
The average seek distance is 20 GB
The application generates a throughput of 250 IOPs for 10 hours/per day and is idle for the remaining 14 hours
You need to estimate the size of the Reserved LUN Pool and the write throughput of the Reserved LUN Pool.
What is the best initial estimate?
A.120 GB, with fifty 64KB writes/second
B.150 GB, with twenty five 128KB writes/second
C.200 GB, with fifty 2KB writes/second
D.512 GB, with two hundred fifty 2KB writes/second
Answer: A
11. BG Industries storage outgrew the capacity on a CX400. A new CX700 was ordered as a replacement for the CX400. After the data is migrated to the CX700, BG Industries intends to repurpose the CX400. Because storage on the CX400 was inefficiently allocated on some LUNs, BG Industries intends to reduce the size of these LUNs. The result is that some of the new LUNs will be the same size, and some will be smaller.
Which feature will achieve this goal?
A.SAN Copy
B.MirrorView
C.MirrorView/A
D.None of them
E.CLARiiON LUN Migration feature
Answer: D
12. MNR Industries bought two CX600s, one for New York and one for New Jersey. Each CX600 is configured with four DAEs. RAID groups span the DAEs. A new application has to be brought up in New Jersey but MNR does not have the budget to purchase additional capacity. The customer decided to reallocate a DAE from the New York site to the New Jersey site to address the capacity requirements.
What is needed to accomplish this task?
A. Discover all of the LUNs from the Storage Groups which are spread across the fourth DAE in New York and delete them
Disconnect the fourth DAE and reallocate it to New Jersey
B. Create New LUNs
Copy the LUNs which are spread over the fourth DAE to the new LUNs with SAN Copy
Modify the LUN configuration in the Storage Groups
Disconnect the 4th DAE and reallocate it to New Jersey
C. Create New LUNs
Copy the LUNs which are spread over the fourth DAE to the new LUNs with SnapView Clone
Modify the LUN configuration in the Storage Groups
Disconnect the fourth DAE and reallocate it to New Jersey
D. Discover the LUNs which are spread across the fourth DAE
Answer: D
13. ABC Corp. purchased a CX700 for eight Windows servers. The current storage requirement is 150 GB per server on RAID-5. Performance is considered important on these LUNs and each server is expected to generate around 500 IOPs. Expected growth is 50 GB every three months.
ABC Corp charges its clients a monthly fee based on allocated storage per server. The storage budget allows for the purchase of disks every six months. ABC is starting with five 36 GB disks in the vault locations for low I/O file shares, two 73 GB hot spares and forty 73 GB disks.
Which configuration will meet performance, scalability and growth requirements while considering ABC Corp’s internal billing and purchasing policies?
A. Configure (4+1) R-5 RAID Groups with metaLUNs consisting of two 75 GB components striped across two RAID Groups
Future growth will involve expanding the metaLUNs in 50 GB increments from one new RAID Group
B. Configure (9+1) R-5 RAID Groups with two LUNs sharing one RAID Group
Future growth will involve creating two new LUNs on a new RAID Group and using Windows Dynamic Disk to create a striped volume on the server
C. Configure (4+1) R-5 RAID Groups, each containing a single max LUN on a dedicated RAID Group
Future growth will involve expanding the LUN to a metaLUN by striping on another max LUN from a new dedicated RAID Group
D. Configure (4+1) R-5 RAID Groups with LUNs of 50 GB
Answer: D
14. FND Bank has CLARiiON CX-700 and 30 Windows Servers, 15 HP UX 11i Servers and 18 IBM AIX 5.1 Servers connected to it. All the servers have two HBAs and are zoned to two different Cisco 9509 Switches (IOS 2.x) for HA. FND Bank is adding more Windows Servers to its Cisco SAN.
Which precaution should FND Bank take before adding any new server zones to the SAN to ensure there is no interruption to its production environment?
A.Take necessary steps to set Domain_ID and do not set Persistence FCID
B.Take necessary steps to set Domain_ID and persistence FCID after new zoning
C.Take necessary steps to set Domain_ID and persistence FCID before new zoning
D.Take one SAN switch off line at a time, do zoning applied changes and bring back online
Answer: C
15. ACME Corporation requested that you design a CLARiiON solution to meet its performance requirements. ACME has a Windows application with random access characteristics. ACME provided you with the following current performance statistics using PerfMon on one production host:
Disk reads/sec: 300 (avg)
Disk writes/sec 229 (avg)
Avg Disk bytes/read: 15585
Avg Disk bytes/write: 17377
Here are the design considerations:
Connect three hosts with identical performance
Requires 3X its current performance
Configure using RAID-5
Configure using 146GB 10K FC drives
How many spindles are required to meet the performance requirements?
A.19
B.31
C.57
D.92
Answer: D
16. HS Special Effects Inc uses a Windows-based application to capture and edit large graphics files with application I/O sizes of 256 KB. The customer standardized on 4+1 RAID-5 LUNs. You wish to achieve maximum performance on the LUNs by correctly aligning the customer’s data. HS will be using SnapView Snapshots for backup purposes.
What is the best solution?
A.Use diskpar with a reserved block count of 128
B.Use diskpar with a reserved block count of 512
C.Bind each LUN with a CLARiiON LUN Offset value of 63
D.Bind each LUN with a CLARiiON LUN Offset value of 128
Answer: B
17. You are planning a SnapView implementation for your customer, FDF Manufacturers. Its production application is write-intensive and FDF plans to use the Snapshot of its production LUN for write-intensive testing. The access pattern for the production application and the testing will be largely random, with a mix of I/O sizes.
Which drive type and RAID type is the best choice to use for the Reserved LUN Pool?
A.Writes to the Reserved LUN Pool are random, of various sizes, as are reads. FC drives with RAID-5 are a good choice
B.Writes to the Reserved LUN Pool are random, of various sizes, as are reads. FC drives with RAID 1/0 are a good choice
C.Writes to the Reserved LUN Pool are random 64 KB, and reads are sequential 64 KB. This makes ATA drives with RAID-3 a good choice
D.Reads from the Reserved LUN Pool are random 64 KB, and writes are sequential 64 KB. ATA drives with RAID-5 are therefore the best choice
Answer: B
18. When a CLARiiON is doing a write to a RAID-5 LUN and the write data is reasonably sequential, what happens when there is not enough data in cache to fill the stripe?
A.Flare will bypass MR3 writes for this operation and write directly to disk.
B.Flare will read data from the physical disk to fill in the ‘holes’, calculate the parity, then write the data and parity to disk in a single operation.
C.Flare will write the data up to the first ‘hole’. It will read data from the physical disk to fill that hole and all remaining ‘holes’, calculate the parity for the entire stripe, then write the remaining data and parity to disk during the second operation.
D.Flare will use a modified MR3, which will write the parity and data up to the first ‘hole’ then will read data from the physical disk to fill that and all remaining ‘holes’, calculate the parity for the entire stripe, then write the remaining data and parity to disk in a second operation.
Answer: B
19. Volume Managers allow the use of plaids on the CLARiiON. The primary performance impact is the manner in which CLARiiON LUNs are striped. Which two [2] points must be considered?
A.Plaids are only useful when the overlying applications are multi-threaded
B.Use host based RAID implementations that do not require parity calculation
C.Use host based RAID implementations that require parity calculation (i.e. RAID-3, RAID-5)
D.LUNs should not be plaid together from RAID groups with different RAID types or stripe sizes
E.The host manager stripe element size has to be equal to, or smaller than the CLARiiON LUN stripe size
Answer: BD
20. Your customer plans to use a local copy of its 512 GB database for testing. The test host will use 4 KB random I/Os with a read/write ratio of 1:1. The LUN activity will be constant at 750 IOPs, and tests will run for 24 hours. In an attempt to save money, the customer wishes to use a Snapshot for testing rather than a Clone.
Which reason do you use to persuade them to use a Clone?
A.The synchronization of the Clone will have a larger performance impact than COFW
B.The synchronization of the Clone will have a smaller performance impact than COFW
C.The Reserved LUN Pool will need to be approximately 1.1 times the size of the Production LUN
D.The Reserved LUN Pool will need to be approximately 2.1 times the size of the Production LUN
Answer: D
21. ABC Corp is having performance problems on a LUN. It has been determined that there is spindle contention in the RAID Group. The host cannot tolerate any downtime. A new LUN has been created on dedicated spindles.
How should the data be moved?
A.Use DRU to copy the data to a new LUN
B.Use SAN Copy to copy the data to a new LUN
C.Use RoboCopy to copy the data to a new LUN
D.Use CLARiiON LUN Migration to copy the data to a new LUN
Answer: D
22. ABC Corp has an existing production application that has been experiencing poor performance. EMC Engineering determined that the stripe element size should be 32KB. The current production LUNs have been configured with the default stripe element size.
How can the default stripe element size be changed while minimizing the impact to the production application?
A.Use LUN Migration to copy the data to a new LUN with a stripe element size set to 64
B.Use the Microsoft diskpar utility to change the stripe element size on the file system to 32
C.Enter engineering mode and change the stripe element size to 64 in the LUN properties for the production LUN
D.Use SAN Copy to copy the data to a new LUN then enter engineering mode and change the new LUNs stripe element size to 32
Answer: A
23. Your customer is running an internet e-mail service on Solaris using Veritas Volume Manager, connected to a CLARiiON CX700. Due to growth the CX700 initial configuration is at its limits and some LUNs show disk contention due to heavy mail-users. A disk upgrade has been sold.
Which steps should be taken to improve performance on overloaded LUNs and also solve the need for more disk space? There should be as little downtime as possible on the host.
A.Create new and larger LUNs on new drives and establish a new mirror using Veritas Volume Manager
B.Create new and larger LUNs on new drives and migrate data using any copy software (i.e. Robocopy)
C.Create new larger LUNs which reside on new drives using the LUN migration feature provided by FLARE16
D.After having created the new and larger LUNs use SAN Copy incremental to migrate the data from the old LUNs
Answer: A
24. Which restriction has to be taken in account when planning a LUN migration?
A.The destination LUN cannot be in an expansion process during a LUN migration
B.The destination LUN cannot be part of layered applications like MirrorView or SnapView
C.An expanding source LUN can only be migrated when the destination LUN is in expansion as well
D.The source and the destination LUN must not be part of layered applications such as MirrorView or SnapView
Answer: B
25. Which restrictions are associated with LUN Migration and MirrorView/S?
A.Primary and Secondary images may be migrated as long as the mirror is out of sync on the same size LUN
B.Primary or Secondary images may be migrated as long as the mirror is not in a consistent state on the same size LUN
C.Primary and Secondary images may be migrated as long as the mirror is in a synchronized state on the same size LUN
D.Primary or Secondary images may be migrated as long as the mirror is not in a synchronized state on the same size LUN
Answer: D
26. The SHA Company will be using MirrorView/S to replicate 40 LUNs from a CX700 to another CX700 at a remote site. It has 10 LUNs in the 100 MB to 10 GB range, 15 LUNs in the 10 GB to 100 GB range, and 15 LUNs larger than 400 GB. All LUNs have a random, small-block I/O profile, with read:write ratios close to 60:40. Recoverability in the event of a disaster is important, but the customer wishes to optimize performance.
Based on these criteria, what is your recommendation for Write Intent Log use and why?
A.Use the Write Intent Log on all LUNs. 40 is less than the allowable limit for the CX700.
B.Use the Write Intent Log on the 25 largest LUNs only. The CX700 allows only 25 LUNs to use the Write Intent Log.
C.Use the Write Intent Log for all LUNs over 10 GB in size. The performance impact is greater than the benefit for small LUNs.
D.Use the Write Intent Log only for LUNs under 10 GB in size. The performance impact is greater than the benefit for large LUNs.
Answer: C
27. Click the Exhibit button.
Your customer uses CX500 and CX700 arrays with existing mirrors. They want to add an application on SITE B and configure an additional five Mirrors using write intent logs. They want to enable WIL on all primary mirrored LUNs on the CX500. In the event that all the secondary images are promoted to primary on the CX500 they want to be able to enable WIL on these LUNs as well.
Will this configuration meet the customer’s requirements?
A.No, it will surpass the WIL maximum on the CX500.
B.Yes, it will meet the customer requirement as a valid configuration.
C.No, it will surpass the maximum images allowed on CX500 even if WIL is not enabled.
D.Yes, it will work but only if four WIL LUNs are added to avoid surpassing the maximum number of LUNs allowed.
Answer: A
28. Click the Exhibit button.
REW You need to analyze a customer’s NAR file. Pay particular attention to the LUN shown in the graphic. How do you describe what’s going on to your customer on this LUN?
A.Everything is normal: dirty pages are below the high watermark. You are not concerned about forced flush/s.
B.Everything is normal: dirty pages are above the watermark limit set to 80% and the forced flush/s ratio is high. However, LUN performance is still good.
C.Everything is normal. Dirty pages are above the watermark limit set to 80%. However, the forced flush/s ratio is normal which still provides relatively good performance.
D.Everything is going badly because both dirty pages and forced flush ratios are too high. If the dirty pages in the cache and the forced flushing on the array are reduced, this LUN will perform better.
Answer: D
29. The customer has asked for your help using Navisphere Analyzer to better understand the randomness of the I/O profile. You launch the disk component of Analyzer. Which parameter would be most helpful?
A.Write Size
B.Queue Length
C.Response Time
D.Average Seek Distance
Answer: D
30. Your customer is running an environment with two sites, one CX500 each, MirrorView/S to meet the company’s RTO requirements for its call data records. The full capacity of 25 mirrored LUNs is configured using the WIL.
Due to the unexpected growth of the company in the last few months, the bill run at the end of the month suffers from a response time increased by 50% due to the CPU utilization of the CLARiiON. This brings the OLTP application to the limits of the available batch window.
Management realized that they have to migrate to a CX700 platform. Which actions can be taken to improve the next bill run performance temporarily?
A.Disable the WIL to offload the CPU utilization
B.Disable the Fracture Log to offload the CPU utilization
C.Disable Write Cache of affected LUNs to decrease the response time
D.Disable Read Cache of affected LUNs to decrease the response time
Answer: A
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Thursday, January 22nd, 200941. A customer is storing data on their primary storage server and using EMC NetWorker to back up this server. They have been experiencing a significant increase in their backup windows during full backups.
You analyzed the customer’s environment and verified that the backup schedules and levels are configured correctly. You also noticed that a large amount of data on the primary storage server has been infrequently accessed.
What should you suggest to the customer to reduce their backup windows?
A. Archive the inactive data and purge it off the primary storage
B. Move the backup server from direct-attached to a SAN connection
C. Set the archive bit on all inactive data
D. Upgrade the backup client network to GigE
Answer: A
42. A small business customer performing data backups for all hosts connected to a CLARiiON array has backup times that are getting too long. The customer is currently backing up 10 hosts, one at a time, over their 100 Mb network to a backup server with a SCSI AIT -3 tape drive.
Which architectural change should you recommend to reduce the backup times for the
environment?
A. Add SnapView to the CLARiiON and perform backups from SnapShot copies
B. Change the 100 Mb network to Gigabit Ethernet
C. Implement higher-density tapes
D. Turn backup jobs into parallel streams and interleave the data on the tapes
Answer: B
43. What is the maximum number of log sets that need to be accounted for in designing a storage solution for Microsoft Exchange Server 2007 Standard Edition?
A. 1
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
Answer: A
44. A customer migrated OLTP applications from servers with direct-attached storage to new servers using a CLARiiON array. Users are complaining about poor application performance. The following information is available for your review:
Performance Manager data on CLARiiON and SAN switches
Current CLARiiON configuration information
Oracle statistics for the applications
EMC Grabs on the new servers
You suspect that cache settings on the CLARiiON array are not appropriate. What is the best method to validate your suspicions?
A. Ask the Customer Engineer to disable read caching and see if that helps
B. Compare the current CLARiiON configuration with installation settings made by Professional Services
C. Review the overall LUN performance mixture to determine if cache settings are appropriate
D. Run HEAT reports on the Grabs
Answer: C
45. A software engineering company has decided to implement shared networked storage to facilitate project development. There are approximately 40 servers in the company; 25% are Solaris and 75% are Windows. The company currently limits growth for storage and does not want to add additional servers for that purpose. They anticipate no more than 30% growth over the next three years.
The storage utilized for the network file systems must be maintained on the most cost-effective solution that is the easiest to manage. However, storage must also be tracked so that the required storage for projects can be charged back to the development teams. Additionally, the network file system will be used for non-project-related storage from other departments such as Human Resources and Accounting. Space allocation for non-project files must be monitored and reports generated for management.
In order to select the most appropriate management application for this environment, you need to analyze specific qualification information. What is the best methodology to collect this information?
A. Collect Grabs from all server systems and process with HEAT. Consolidate the findings and summarize on the qualification document.
B. Interview product development team leads and department heads. Determine current and projected storage requirements and any retention policies currently in use.
C. Provide the EMC qualification document to the customer and have them complete the form.
D. Request network configuration information and performance characteristics. Collect Grabs from all server systems and process with HEAT.
Answer: B
46. Using SAN Copy, a source Windows LUN of 100 GB has been copied to a 200 GB target LUN. After assigning the target LUN to the new host and running Disk Administrator to recognize the drive, what must be done to the Windows partition on the new host to see the LUN as 200 GB?
A. Nothing; partition will be seen as 200 GB immediately
B. Run diskpart and set the partition size to 200 GB
C. Run the fdisk command and set the partition size to 200 GB
D. Run the format command and set the partition size to 200 GB
Answer: B
47. A customer has just purchased a Global File Virtualization (GFV) and File Management Application (FMA) appliance and are very concerned with high availability. They have also ordered File Management High Availability (FMHA) but have not received it yet. The customer needs to implement a solution as soon as possible.
What should you propose for FMA high availability until the FMHA arrives?
A. Configure a host for high availability
B. Use the FMA for recall requests
C. Use the GFV for recall requests
D. Wait for the FMHA to arrive
Answer: C
48. A customer likes the de-duplication benefits of an EMC Avamar solution and is interested in implementing it in their environment. The customer would like to know how de-duplication works with restores and has asked you to explain the restore process with Avamar.
How does EMC Avamar construct the files for restores?
A. EMC Avamar checks the client for file blocks that are already present in the client and sends
only the unique blocks back to the client.
B. EMC Avamar checks the local cache on the client for file blocks. If present, it copies those blocks locally and restores the remaining blocks from the server.
C. EMC Avamar checks with the local cache on the client and if a copy of the file is present, it copies the file locally. If the file is not present, it sends the required file from the server to the
client.
D. EMC Avamar reconstructs the entire file on the server and sends the complete file back to the client.
Answer: D
49. A customer is planning to implement encryption within their data center. The customer is considering application-level encryption as a solution. They have asked you for guidance concerning the extent of access provided by this level of encryption.
From which system components are application-encrypted data protected?
A. Host, network, and storage device
B. Other applications, host, network, and storage device
C. Other applications, network, and storage device
D. Storage network and storage device
Answer: B
50. A customer is using Symantec NetBackup for backups in their environment. They have multiple physical tape libraries that are used for backups and clone operations at the primary data center and a disaster recovery site. The backup data is cloned daily to the remote disaster recovery site.
The customer’s backups are taking longer and are not able to complete the clone operations within one day to meet their service level objectives. What should you recommend to manage the clone operations efficiently and to improve the backup performance?
A. EMC CLARiiON with ATA disks for backup operations
B. EMC Disk Library with an embedded Media Server
C. EMC Disk Library with an embedded Storage Node
D. Higher-density tape to reduce tape swapping
Answer: B
51.To increase performance in a Rainfinity environment, a customer is interested in load balancing traffic and increasing throughput. Which network configuration option should you recommend?
A. Use the freeze/thaw functionality then use admsnap
B. Extra switch
C. Link aggregation
D. Synchronous replication
Answer: C
52. A customer currently has a SAN infrastructure with EMC Symmetrix storage arrays. They would like you to integrate a Celerra NSX into their architecture. They want to take advantage of their existing synchronous replication.
Which replication solution would you propose?
A. Celerra Replicator
B. Celerra with SRDF/A
C. Celerra with SRDF/S
D. Celerra with TimeFinder/FS Far Copy
Answer: C
53. A customer with several Linux hosts connected to their CLARiiON array has asked for your assistance. They attempted to create a clone of the volumes on one of their hosts via the Navisphere CLI and the operation failed.
To ensure the CLI operation is successful, what must the customer do before creating the clones?
A. Create the Clone Private LUNs
B. Grow the Reserved LUN Pool
C. Implement an agent.config file on the host
D. Use the Navisphere Secure CLI
Answer: A
54. Your customer wants you to design the data layout for their imaging database.
The data read size and write size are 256 KB
Accesses are sequential
The application is single-threaded
Which RAID type and configuration would you recommend?
A. 2+2 RAID 1/0
B. 4+1 RAID 3
C. 4+1 RAID 5
D. 4+4 RAID 1/0
Answer: B
55. A Rainfinity administrator has submitted and completed a Linux migration. The administrator noticed that several files did not migrate to the destination. The logs were reviewed and no error was found.
What could cause this to occur?
A. A Linux server was configured with NFS v4 and is not supported
B. A user logged in to the source server and deleted the file
C. A Windows user using the CIFS protocol deleted the file
D. Due to the file size of 16 KB, the file was overlooked
Answer: B
56. Click on the Exhibit button.
A customer is designing an environment in order to archive inactive file data to an EMC Centera at Site B. The files are migrated to the EMC Centera onl y if they have not been accessed in the last 90 days. The customer also requires a comprehensive disaster recovery solution to restore all the data in case of a disaster.
The customer has asked you to review their design. What should you suggest to the customer to meet their requirements?
A. Back up both the primary and secondary storage
B. Back up the EMC DiskXtender server
C. Include a high-availability solution in the design
D. Replicate the EMC Centera
Answer: A
57. A customer has presented you with a request to support the following:
Block level access to the storage subsystem
Client ability to restore files
Which Celerra features will address the customer’s concerns?
A. Home Directories and SnapSure
B. iSCSI and SnapSure
C. iSCSI and TimeFinder F/S
D. TimeFinder F/S and Home Directories
Answer: B
58. A customer attempted to restore data to a corrupted LUN that has multiple clones associated with it using Replication Manager. After the restore, the customer tested the data and it was still corrupted. When they went to use one of the other clones of the source LUN, they were corrupted as well.
Which feature should the customer implement to prevent this in the future?
A. CLARiiON Copy Protection
B. CLARiiON Protected Restore
C. Replication Manager Over-write Protection
D. Replication Manager Protected Restore
Answer: B
59. A customer has just purchased a Rainfinity solution. The customer believes that some of their servers have a heavy workload on them while others may not be as busy.
Which process should the customer use to confirm this issue?
A. Capacity Management
B. Migration and Consolidation
C. Performance Management
D. Tiered Storage Management
Answer: D
60. A customer has mirrored fabrics. The application environment consists of dual-pathed production hosts and a small number of single-pathed hosts dedicated to backup. The customer notices significant performance degradation on production hosts during backup operations.
Further investigation reveals that a production host exhibits equally distributed IOPS across its HBAs during this time period. What is a likely cause of this problem?
A. Excessive RSCN traffic on both fabrics
B. Fabric has more than three hops causing some delays
C. PowerPath load-balancing policy has been set to Adaptive
D. PowerPath load-balancing policy has been set to Round_Robin
Answer: D
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최신E20-322덤프가 제공한다…
Wednesday, January 21st, 2009Based on recovery time, what is the correct order that you should present to the customer?
Which EMC ControlCenter user interface should you recommend to the user?
Answer: C
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최신 642-845 덤프가 할인 중 …
Tuesday, January 20th, 2009
1. Which one of the following statements correctly describes an FXO interface?
A. analog trunks that connect a gateway to plain old telephone service (POTS) device such as analog phones, fax machines, and legacy voice-mail systems
B. analog trunks that provide the Survivable Remote Site Telephony (SRST) feature
C. analog trunks that provide VoIP gateway functionality
D. analog trunks that connect a gateway to a central office (CO) or private branch exchange (PBX)
Answer: D
2. Cisco AutoQoS is innovative technology that minimizes the complexity, time, and operating cost of Quality of Service (QoS) deployment. Which two steps are executed in the deployment of Cisco AutoQoS for Enterprise? (Choose two.)
A. The customer uses SNMP statistics to create the policy.
B. QoS policy templates are generated and installed on the interface.
C. The auto-generated policy is manually optimized before implementation.
D. Auto-discovery is used to determine what traffic is on the interface.
Answer: BD
3. Quality of Service (QoS) refers to the capability of a network to provide better service to selected network traffic over various technologies .Which two options are true about the application of QoS in a converged network? (Choose two.)
A. End-to-end network delay is not a factor as long as the delay is consistent.
B. Some packet loss can be corrected by codec algorithms.
C. End-to-end network delay times that exceed 50 ms for real-time traffic are considered unacceptable.
D. End-to-end network delay times that exceed 250 ms for real-time traffic are considered unacceptable.
Answer: BD
4. Network topology exhibit:
You are a network technician at TestInside.com, examine the exhibit carefully. You need to finalize the configuration of router TIS-R in this scenario. In particular you should decide which interface types can be used for connecting router TIS-R to the phone and fax respectively. (Choose two.)
A. Connect the analog phone to an FXS port.
B. Connect the fax to an FXS port.
C. Connect the fax to an FXO port.
D. Connect the analog phone to an FXO port.
Answer: AB
5. Look at the following options, which one is not a benefit of VoIP compared to traditional circuit-switched telephony?
A. Access to new communication devices
B. Consolidated network expenses
C. Improved employee productivity
D. Higher voice quality
Answer: D
6. On the basis of the following traffic descriptions, which one is used for marking?
A. FIFO Layer 2 descriptor labels (L2DL)
B. WRED (Weighted RED) orange or green labels
C. MPLS experimental bits
D. Header compression tags
Answer: B
7. You are a network technician at TestInside.com, do you know what are two of the three predefined classes for the Cisco SDM wizard? (Choose two.)
A. best effort
B. middle class
C. high priority
D. business-critical
Answer: AD
8. You work as a network technician, study the following options carefully.A GRE tunnel is configured between a local and a remote site. Where should the service policy be applied to classify packets based on the pretunnel header?
A. Apply the service policy on the physical interface but do not use the qos pre-classify command.
B. In global configuration mode, apply the service policy and use the qos pre-classify command.
C. In global configuration mode, apply the service policy but do not use the qos pre-classify command.
D. Apply the service policy on the tunnel interface but do not use the qos pre-classify command.
Answer: D
9. Which option is not considered one of the main methods to tackle the bandwidth availability problem?
A. Use compression techniques.
B. Increase (upgrade) the link bandwidth.
C. Forward large packets first.
D. Classify and mark traffic and deploy proper queuing mechanisms.
Answer: C
10. Refer to the capabilities of a voice gateway router ,which statement is true ?
A. Voice gateways need a gatekeeper to interconnect the VoIP networks with the PSTN network.
B. Voice gateways equipped with a DSP module can take the role of the call agent during WAN failure.
C. Voice gateways with Cisco Unified CallManager Express (CME) can permanently act as a call agent for IP phones.
D. Voice gateways with analog interfaces need a gatekeeper to convert analog signals into digital format before voice is encapsulated into IP packets.
Answer: C
11. You work as a network engineer at TestInside.com, study the exhibit carefully. What type of interface will connect the voice gateway router TIS1 to the TestInside phone and the fax machine?
A. The TestInside phone will be connected to the FXS port, and the fax machine will be connected to the FXO port on router TIS1.
B. Both devices will be connected to the E and M ports on router TIS1.
C. Both devices will be connected to the FXS ports on router TIS1.
D. The TestInside phone will be connected to the FXO port, and the fax machine will be connected to the FXS port on router TIS1.
Answer: C
12. You work as a network engineer at TestInside.com, so you should know the sampling rules. One of the most important rules of sampling is called the Nyquist Theorem, which states that the highest frequency which can be correctly represented is less than one-half of the sampling rate. On the basis of the Nyquist theorem, what sampling rate is required to support voice frequencies of up to 4000 Hz?
A. 4000 samples per second
B. 2000 samples per second
C. 6000 samples per second
D. 8000 samples per second
Answer: D
13. Cisco AutoQoS is innovative technology that minimizes the complexity, time, and operating cost of Quality of Service (QoS) deployment. Which option is correct about the configuration of AutoQoS on a Frame Relay interface?
A. Multilink PPP (MLP) over Frame Relay must be manually configured on low speed DLCIs.
B. AutoQoS can be configured on a Frame Relay DLCI only if a map class is attached to the DLCI.
C. For low-speed Frame Relay DLCIs with Frame Relay-to-ATM Interworking, the AutoQoS cannot be configured if a virtual template is already configured for the DLCI.
D. AutoQoS can be configured from a different subinterface if the DLCI is already assigned to one subinterface.
Answer: C
14. Wired Equivalent Privacy (WEP) is a deprecated algorithm to secure IEEE 802.11 wireless networks. Which one of the following statements is not a weakness of WEP?
A. Because with basic WEP the wireless client does not authenticate the access point, the client can be victimized by rogue access points.
B. With enough data captured, even with initialization vector used, the WEP key can be deducted.
C. WEP is vulnerable to dictionary attacks.
D. The WEP usage of certificates is not convenient for some customers.
Answer: D
15. If you are a network technician, can you tell me what are two major sources of delay that can be managed by QoS in voice-enabled networks? (Choose two.)
A. packets dropped because of CRC errors
B. propagation delay
C. header overhead
D. congested egress queues
Answer: CD
16. Which one of the following descriptions is correct about the Cisco 2700 Location Appliance collection of location information for wireless devices?
A. The APs collect received signal strength indication (RSSI) information from all Wi-Fi devices and forward the information to the Cisco Wireless Location Appliance through the LWAPP.
B. An AP collects RSSI information which is forwarded to wireless controllers through LWAPP. Wireless controllers forward aggregated RSSI to the location appliance through SNMP.
C. The Cisco WLAN controllers bypass the received signal strength indication (RSSI) information from all Wi-Fi devices to the Cisco Wireless Location Appliance through LWAPP.
D. All Wi-Fi devices on the WLAN send directly received signal strength indication (RSSI) information to the Cisco Wireless Location Appliance through SNMP.
Answer: B
17. You are a network technician at TestInside.com.Your task is to extend QoS in the TestInside network to include wireless LAN. In which device or devices is wireless QoS implemented for Cisco Lightweight AP split-MAC architecture?
A. The Wireless LAN Controller only
B. The AP only
C. Between the AP and Catalyst switch via 802.1p
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D. Between the AP and Wireless LAN Controller via LWAPP
Answer: D
18. Which two options about the DiffServ QoS model are correct? (Choose two.)
A. The flow-based approach of the DiffServ model is ideal for large scalable implementations such as the public Internet.
B. The DiffServ model is more scalable than the IntServ model.
C. DiffServ requires RSVP to set up a path through the network to accommodate the requested QoS.
D. Network traffic is identified by class, and the level of service is chosen for each class.
Answer: BD
19. WLSE-Express provides complete enterprise-class security and control in an integrated solution package. What are two features of WLSE-Express wireless management? (Choose two.)
A. centralized management with integrated AAA server
B. integration with the Location Appliance to expand real time tracking to 2500 devices for 30 days
C. integration with the Location Appliance to expand real time tracking to 1500 devices for 30 days
D. centralized management for autonomous access points
Answer: AD
20. Which one is not considered a valid classification traffic descriptor?
A. Source or destination address
B. Traffic path
C. IP precedence or DSCP value
D. Incoming interface
Answer: B
21. Which three descriptions are correct about the application of QoS models? (Choose three.)
A. The DiffServ model requires applications to signal the network with QoS requirements.
B. The best effort model is suitable for applications such as file transfer and e-mail
C. The IntServ model requires applications to signal the network with QoS requirements.
D. The DiffServ model can be used to deliver QoS based upon IP precedence, or source and destination addresses.
Answer: BCD
22. Study the exhibit carefully. The serial link connecting the two offices has a bandwidth of 128 kbps. What could be done to set aside 64 kbps of bandwidth to transport VoIP traffic over the WAN link?
A. Apply the auto-cost reference-bandwidth 64 command on both sides of the serial link.
B. Apply the ip bandwidth-percent eigrp 1 64 command on both sides of the serial link.
C. Apply the frame-relay voice-bandwidth 64000 command to enable the QoS Call Admission Control feature on the serial link.
D. Apply the max-conn 64 command on a perial peer basis on both sides of the serial link.
Answer: C
23. A Cisco WCS is being used to manage the TestInside wireless network. Which Cisco Wireless Control System (WCS) description is correct?
A. Cisco WCS software is used for WLAN planning, configuration, and management.
B. The Cisco WCS base software provides on-demand location of rogue APs and clients to within 33 feet (10 meters).
C. The three versions of Cisco WCS are WCS Base, WCS Location, and WCS Express.
D. Up to 2,500 APs can be supported from a single Cisco WCS console.
Answer: A
24. As a network technician ,can you tell me which three configuration tasks are required to successfully deploy NBAR to recognize TCP and UDP stateful protocols? (Choose three.)
A. Use the random-detect dscp command to modify the default minimum and maximum thresholds for the DSCP value.
B. Use the service-policy command to attach a traffic flow to an interface on the router.
C. Use the policy-map command to define one or more QoS policies (such as shaping, policing, and so on) to apply to traffic defined by a class map.
D. Use the class-map command to define one or more traffic classes by specifying the criteria by which traffic is classified.
Answer: BCD
25. There are many reasons for network congestion ,what is the most common cause of network congestion?
A. flapping Ethernet interfaces caused by misconfigured LAN interfaces
B. aggregation congestion occurring at the core layer where the different distribution layer devices feed traffic to the core-layer switches
C. speed mismatches when moving from a low-speed LAN environment to a higher speed WAN environment
D. speed mismatches when moving from a high-speed LAN environment to a lower speed WAN environment
Answer: D
26. Which one of the following options shows the correct mapping of 802.11e priority levels to WMM access categories?
A. Voice(Platinum)=6/7, Video(Gold)=4/5, Best-Effort(Silver)=3/2, Background(Bronze)=0/1
B. Voice(Platinum)=6/7, Video(Gold)=4/5, Best-Effort(Silver)=1/2, Background( Bronze)=0/3
C. Voice(Platinum)=6/7, Video(Gold)=4/5, Best-Effort(Silver)=0/3, Background( Bronze)=1/2
D. None of the above
Answer: C
27. The Cisco Autonomous WLAN solution reduces overall operational expenses. What are two components of the Cisco Autonomous WLAN solution? (Choose two.)
A. LWAPP
B. WDS
C. WLC
D. WLSE
Answer: BD
28. WPA is a security technology for wireless networks. What are three security problems with Wi-Fi Protected Access (WPA)? (Choose three.)
A. WPA is based on the outdated IEEE 802.11i standard.
B. WPA is susceptible to a security weakness when preshared keys are used.
C. WPA uses TKIP, which uses the same base encryption algorithm as WEP.
D. WPA is susceptible to a DoS attack when it receives two packets in quick succession with bad MICs, forcing the AP to shut down the entire Basic Service Set (BSS) for one minute.
Answer: BCD
29. You are tasked to install WCS on a management station to monitor the TestInside wireless network. Which two operating systems are supported by Cisco for WCS wireless management installation and operation? (Choose two)
A. Windows XP Professional
B. Red Hat Enterprise Linux ES 3
C. MAC OS X v10.3 or later
D. Windows 2000 Server with SP4 or later
Answer: BD
30. When the QoS-for-VPNs feature (QoS pre-classify) provides packet classification and applies appropriate QoS service on tunnel interfaces , do you know which three characteristics of the traffic flow should be taken into consideration? (Choose three.)
A. IP precedence bits
B. source IP address
C. original port numbers
D. destination IP address
Answer: BCD
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310-091
Monday, January 19th, 20091. Which is a valid PostConstruct method in a message-driven bean class?
A. @PostConstruct
public boolean init() { return true; }
B. @PostConstruct
private static void init() {}
C. @PostConstruct
private void init() {}
D. @PostConstruct
public static void init() {}
Answer: C
2. Given:
11. @Entity public class X {
12. @Id int id;
13. Y y;
14. }
A public class Y with NO Java Persistence annotations is defined in the same package.
Which statement is correct about these classes if NO other annotations and mapping descriptors are provided?
A. Class Y must be serializable.
B. Class Y must be marked as an entity.
C. The entity X is not defined correctly.The field y must be marked as @Lob.
D. Class Y must be accessed by a persistence application through a public interface.
Answer: A
3. A developer is working on a user registration application using EJB 3.0. A business method registerUser in stateless session bean RegistrationBean performs the user registration. The registerUser method executes in a transaction context started by the client. If some invalid user data causes the registration to fail, the client invokes registerUser again with corrected data using the same transaction. Which design can meet this requirement?
A. Have registerUser method call EJBContext.setRollbackOnly() method after registration fails.
B. Have registerUser method throw javax.ejb.EJBTransactionRequiredException after registration fails.
C. Have registerUser method throw EJBException without marking the transaction for rollback, after registration fails.
D. Create an application exception with the rollback attribute set to false and have registerUser method throw it after registration fails.
Answer: D
4. Which two class types must be implicitly or explicitly denoted in the persistence.xml descriptor as managed persistence classes to be included within a persistence unit? (Choose two.)
A. Entity classes
B. Interceptor classes
C. Embedded classes
D. Entity listener classes
Answer: AC
5. Which statement about the combination of mapping defaults, annotations, and XML descriptors is correct?
A. All mapping annotations must always be processed by the persistence provider.
B. Some annotations, like the @Entity annotation, must always be processed by the persistence provider.
C. The mapping information for an entity class specified by annotations and in XML descriptors must be distinct.
D. If multiple entity listeners are defined, the order in which they are invoked can be defined or overwritten in the XML descriptor.
Answer: D
6. Which statement about an entity instance lifecycle is correct?
A. A new entity instance is an instance with a fully populated state.
B. A detached entity instance is an instance with no persistent identity.
C. A removed entity instance is NOT associated with a persistence context.
D. A managed entity instance is the instance associated with a persistence context.
Answer: D
7. A developer implements a session bean with a method doStuff which behaves differently depending on the caller’s security role. Only users in security roles “ADMIN” and “USER” are allowed to call the method. Assume that there is no security-related metadata in the deployment descriptor. Which two, taken in combination, are appropriate to accomplish this? (Choose two.)
A. Annotate method doStuff with @PermitAll.
B. Annotate method doStuff with @RolesAllowed({”ADMIN”,”USER”})
C. If EJBContext.getCallerPrincipal returns role “ADMIN”, implement the behavior for users in role ADMIN.
D. If EJBContext.isCallerInRole(”ADMIN”) returns true, implement the behavior defined for users in role “ADMIN”.
Answer: BD
8. A developer wants to create a portable EJB 3.0 application that includes the following class definition for the Entity Account:
11. @Entity
12. @EntityListeners(com.acme.AlertMonitor.class)
13. public class Account {
14. // more code here
15. @PrePersist
16. protected void validateCreate() {/* more code here */}
17. }
Which statement is correct?
A. The validateCreate method may NOT throw runtime exceptions.
B. The validateCreate method can invoke the EntityManager.flush operation.
C. Methods of the class com.acme.AlertMonitor annotated with callback annotations must take an Object or Account instance as the only argument.
D. The above class definition is NOT correct. An entity cannot define a callback method like PrePersist and use the EntityListeners annotation at the same time.
Answer: C
9. Given:
11. @PersistenceContext EntityManager em;
12. public boolean test(Order o) {
13. boolean b = false;
14. o = em.merge(o);
15 em.remove(o);
16. o = em.merge(o);
17. b = em.contains(o);
18. return b;
19. }
Which statement is correct?
A. The method will return TRUE.
B. The method will return FALSE.
C. The method will throw an exception.
D. The Order instance will be removed from the database.
Answer: C
10. The deployment descriptor for a stateless session bean that uses the isCallerInRole method reads as follows:
3. <security-role-ref>
4. <role-name>manager</role-name>
5. <role-link>humanresources</role-link>
6. <security-role-ref>
16. <security-role>
17. <description>
18. Is allowed to view and update all employee records.
19. </description>
20. <role-name>humanresources</role-name>
21. </security-role>
Which two roles are responsible for creating this deployment descriptor? (Choose two.)
A. Deployer
B. Bean Provider
C. System Administrator
D. Application Assembler
Answer: BD
11. Given two entities with a many-to-many bidirectional association between them:
11. @Entity public class Employee {
12. Collection projects;
13. // more code here
14. }
and
11. @Entity public class Project{
12. Set<Employee> emps;
13. // more code here
14. }
What set of annotations correctly defines the association?
A. @ManyToMany on the projects field,
@ManyToMany(mappedBy=”projects”) on the emps field
B. @ManyToMany(mappedBy=”emps”) on the projects field,
@ManyToMany on the emps field
C. @ManyToMany(targetEntity=Project.class) on the projects field,
@ManyToMany(mappedBy=”projects”) on the emps field
D. @ManyToMany(targetEntity=Project.class) on the projects field,
@ManyToMany on the emps field
Answer: C
12. Given code snippets from two files:
7. public class Dog {
8. public void onMessage(Message m) { System.out.print(”1 “); }
9. }
and
10. @MessageDriven
11. class MessageDog extends Dog implements MessageDrivenBean {
12. MessageDog(Message m) { System.out.print(”2 “); }
13. }
Which four code changes, when used together, create a valid JMS message-driven bean? (Choose four.)
A. Make class MessageDog public.
B. Make the MessageDog constructor no-arg.
C. Make the MessageDog constructor public.
D. Move the onMessage method to class MessageDog.
E. Change MessageDog so that it is NOT a subclass of Dog.
F. Make class MessageDog implement MessageListener instead of MessageDrivenBean.
Answer: ABCF
13. Which statement about entity manager is true?
A. A container-managed entity manager must be a JTA entity manager.
B. An entity manager injected into session beans can use either JTA or resource-local transaction control.
C. An entity manager created by calling the EntityManagerFactory.createEntityManager method always uses JTA transaction control.
D. An entity manager obtained through resource injection in a stateful session bean can use a resource-local EntityTransaction for transaction control.
Answer: A
14. Which two options can be used to predefine Java Persistence queries for easy use? (Choose two.)
A. @NamedQuery annotation
B. @NamedNativeQuery annotation
C. using the named-query element in the XML descriptor
D. using the named-native-query element in the XML descriptor
Answer: AC
15. Given a set of CMT bean methods with the following transaction attributes:
Method M1=SUPPORTS
Method M2=REQUIRED
Method M3=NOT_SUPPORTED
Method M4=REQUIRES_NEW
And the following method invocation sequence:
Method M1 invokes Method M2
Method M2 invokes Method M3
Method M1 invokes Method M4
If Method M1 is invoked by a method that does NOT have a transaction context, which describes a possible scenario?
A. Method M1: no transaction
Method M2: new transaction
Method M3: no transaction
Method M4: new transaction
B. Method M1: no transaction
Method M2: Container throws EJBTransactionRequiredException
C. Method M1: new transaction
Method M2: runs in same transaction as M1
Method M3: Container throws TransactionNotSupportedException
D. Method M1: no transaction
Method M2: new transaction
Method M3: Container throws TransactionNotSupportedException
Answer: A
16. A developer wants to create a Java Persistence query that returns valid U.S. phone numbers (formatted as “123-456-7890″ or “800-RUN-EJB3″) from a collection of differently formatted international phone numbers. The developer needs only those numbers that begin with 303. Which WHERE clause is correct?
A. WHERE addr.phone LIKE ‘303_’
B. WHERE addr.phone LIKE ‘303%’
C. WHERE addr.phone LIKE ‘303-_-_’
D. WHERE addr.phone LIKE ‘303-%-%’
E. WHERE addr.phone LIKE ‘303-___-____’
F. WHERE addr.phone LIKE ‘303-%%%-%%%%’
Answer: E
17. A developer is working on a project that includes both EJB 2.1 and EJB 3.0 session beans. A lot of business logic has been implemented and tested in these EJB 2.1 session beans. Some EJB 3.0 session beans need to access this business logic.
Which design approach can achieve this requirement?
A. Add adapted home interfaces to EJB 3.0 session beans to make EJB 3.0 and EJB 2.1 session beans interoperable.
B. Add EJB 3.0 business interfaces to existing EJB 2.1 session beans and inject references to these business interfaces into EJB 3.0 session beans.
C. No need to modify existing EJB 2.1 session beans. Use the @EJB annotation to inject a reference to the EJB 2.1 home interface into the EJB 3.0 bean class.
D. No need to modify existing EJB 2.1 session beans. Use the @EJB annotation to inject a reference to the EJB 2.1 component interface into the EJB 3.0 bean class.
Answer: C
18. A developer is modifying an existing Java EE application that uses the JDBC API to access a database. This code must be used but cannot be changed, and new code needs to be added that uses the Java Persistence API.
Both parts of the code will execute in the same JTA transaction.
Which method of the EntityManager interface should the new code use to ensure that the data read by JDBC statements includes the state of managed entities?
A. Call refresh on each changed entity.
B. Call flush at the end of each business method.
C. Call find before accessing any managed entity.
D. Call lock at the beginning of each business method.
Answer: B
19. A developer wants to achieve the following two behaviors for an EJB 3.0 session bean:
(1) If the client calls a business method with a transaction context, the container will invoke the enterprise bean’s method in the client’s transaction context.
(2) If the client calls a business method without a transaction context, the container will throw the javax.ejb.EJBTransactionRequiredException.
Which transaction attribute should be used?
A. REQUIRED
B. SUPPORTS
C. MANDATORY
D. REQUIRES_NEW
E. NOT_SUPPORTED
Answer: C
20. Given a stateless session bean with container-managed transaction demarcation, from which two methods can a developer access another enterprise bean? (Choose two.)
A. bean constructor
B. Timeout callback method
C. PreDestroy lifecycle callback method
D. PostConstruct lifecycle callback method
E. business method from the business interface
Answer: BE
21. Which two are programming restrictions in the EJB 3.0 specification? (Choose two.)
A. An enterprise bean must NOT attempt to load a native library.
B. An enterprise bean must NOT declare static fields as final.
C. An enterprise bean must NOT attempt to create a new security manager.
D. An enterprise bean must NOT propagate a RuntimeException to the container.
E. An enterprise bean must NOT attempt to obtain a javax.naming.InitialContext.
Answer: AC
22. The Java Persistence API defines a notion of propagation of a persistence context. Which statement is correct?
A. Persistence context propagation is NOT supported for message-driven beans.
B. Persistence context propagation is supported for any type of an entity manager.
C. Persistence context propagation avoids the need for the application to pass references of entity manager instances.
D. Persistence context propagation results in cloning of all managed instances for use by another instance of an entity manager.
Answer: C
23. Given the following statements about an EJB deployment descriptor for which the metadata-complete attribute is not specified:
I. The EJB deployment descriptor can provide additional metadata to bean class annotations.
II. The EJB deployment descriptor can partially override bean class annotations.
III. The EJB deployment descriptor can entirely override bean class annotations.
Which is true?
A. Only statement I is correct.
B. Only statement II is correct.
C. Only statement III is correct.
D. Both statements I and II are correct.
E. Both statements I and III are correct.
Answer: D
24. Which Java Persistence query uses the aggregate function correctly, assuming that chairs field is of type int?
A. SELECT ANY(r.chairs) FROM Room r
B. SELECT NEW Integer(MAX(r.chairs)) FROM Room r
C. SELECT r FROM Room r WHERE r.chairs > AVG(r.chairs)
D. SELECT c FROM Chair c WHERE LOCATE (c.type, ‘lazyboy’) > -1
Answer: B
25. A business method of a stateless session bean with a transaction attribute REQUIRED executes a Java Persistence query on a container-managed persistence context.
Under which two conditions can the developer expect the persistence provider to ensure that all changes made to the persistence context in the transaction are visible to the processing of the query? (Choose two.)
A. The flush mode is NOT explicitly set.
B. The flush mode on the Query object is set to COMMIT.
C. The refresh method on the EntityManager is called.
D. The flush mode on the persistence context is set to AUTO but is NOT specified for the Query object.
Answer: AD
26. A session bean calls the setRollbackOnly method on the EJBContext interface within a business method with an active transaction. Which two are correct? (Choose two.)
A. The transaction timeout is immediately disabled.
B. The container will ensure that the transaction will never commit.
C. The bean must have started the current transaction for this to be legal.
D. The bean must have bean-managed transaction demarcation for this to be legal.
E. The bean must have container-managed transaction demarcation for this to be legal.
Answer: BE
27. Given:
5. public interface MrB1 {
6. public interface MrB2 {
A java class is defined as:
11. @Stateless
12. public class MrBean implements MrB1,MrB2 {
Which two statements are correct for making this code work as a stateless session bean, considering that this session bean is NOT defined in a deployment descriptor and the interfaces do NOT have annotations? (Choose two.)
A. Only the inteface for remote usage must be annotated.
B. The interfaces MrB1 and MrB2 can only be used locally without changing the code.
C. Both interfaces MrB1 and MrB2 must be annotated to make this a working stateless session bean.
D. The interfaces MrB1 and MrB2 can be annotated differently, one with @Local and the other with @Remote.
Answer: CD
28. A developer wants to write a stateful session bean using the following interface as local business interface:
1. package acme;
2. public interface Bar {
3. public void bar();
4. }
Assuming there is NOT an ejb-jar.xml file, which code can be inserted into Lines 4-6 below to define the bean with the ejb name of BarBean?
1. package acme;
2. import javax.ejb.*;
3. import java.io.*;
4.
5.
6.
7. }
A. @Stateful
public class BarEJB implements Bar {
public void bar() {}
B. @Stateful(name=”Bar”)
public class BarBean implements Bar {
public void bar() {}
C. @Stateful
public class BarBean implements Serializable, Bar {
public void bar() {}
D. @Stateful(name=”Bar”)
public class BarBean implements Bar {
public void bar() throws java.rmi.RemoteException {}
Answer: C
29. Given the following client-side code that makes use of the session bean Foo:
10. @EJB Foo bean1;
11. @EJB Foo bean2;
//more code here
20. boolean test1 = bean1.equals(bean1);
21. boolean test2 = bean1.equals(bean2);
Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. If Foo is stateful, test1 is true, and test2 is true.
B. If Foo is stateful, test1 is true, and test2 is false.
C. If Foo is stateless, test1 is true, and test2 is true.
D. If Foo is stateful, test1 is false, and test2 is false.
E. If Foo is stateless, test1 is true, and test2 is false.
F. If Foo is stateless, test1 is false, and test2 is false.
Answer: BC
30. A developer writes an interceptor class called FooInterceptor containing the following AroundInvoke method:
11. @AroundInvoke
12. public Object intercept(InvocationContext ctx) {
13. return “intercepted”;
14. }
FooInterceptor is applied to a business method in a stateless session bean:
11. @Interceptors(FooInterceptor.class)
12. public String testzero(int i) {
13. return (i == 0) ? “zero” : “not zero”;
14. }
Which describes the result when a client invokes the testzero method with a value of 1?
A. The intercept method is NEVER invoked.
B. The client receives a return value of “zero”.
C. The client receives a return value of “not zero”.
D. The client receives a return value of “intercepted”.
Answer: D
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70-649 (3)
Sunday, January 18th, 200941. Your company has deployed Network Access Protection (NAP) enforcement for VPNs.
You need to ensure that the health of all clients can be monitored and reported.
What should you do?
A. Create a Group Policy object (GPO) that enables Security Center and link the policy to the domain.
B. Create a Group Policy object (GPO) that enables Security Center and link the policy to the Domain Controllers organizational unit (OU).
C. Create a Group Policy object (GPO) and set the Require trusted path for credential entry option to Enabled. Link the policy to the domain.
D. Create a Group Policy object (GPO) and set the Require trusted path for credential entry option to Enabled. Link the policy to the Domain Controllers organizational unit (OU).
Answer: A
42. Your company has deployed Network Access Protection (NAP).
You configure secure wireless access to the network by using 802.1x authentication from any access point.
You need to ensure that all client computers that access the network are evaluated by NAP.
What should you do?
A. Configure all access points as RADIUS clients to the Remediation Servers.
B. Configure all access points as RADIUS clients to the Network Policy Server (NPS).
C. Create a Network Policy that defines Remote Access Server as a network connection method.
D. Create a Network Policy that specifies EAP-TLS as the only available authentication method.
Answer: B
43. You install the Web Server (IIS) on a server that runs Windows Server 2008.
You install a Microsoft .NET Framework application on a Web site that is hosted on the server in a folder named \wwwroot.
The .NET Framework application must write to a log file that resides in the \Program Files\WebApp folder.
You need to configure the .NET Framework trust level setting for the Web site so that the application can write to the log file.
What should you do?
A. Set the .NET Framework trust level to Full for the Web site.
B. Set the .NET Framework trust level to High for the Web site.
C. Set the .NET Framework trust level to Minimal for the Web site.
D. Set the .NET Framework trust level to Medium for the Web site.
Answer: C
44. Your company has a main office and 15 branch offices. The company has a single Active Directory domain. All servers run Windows Server 2008.
You need to ensure that the VPN connections between the main office and the branch offices meet the following requirements:
All data must be encrypted by using end-to-end encryption.
The VPN connection must use computer-level authentication.
User names and passwords cannot be used for authentication.
What should you do?
A. Configure an IPsec connection to use tunnel mode and preshared key authentication.
B. Configure a PPTP connection to use version 2 of the MS-CHAP v2 authentication.
C. Configure a L2TP/IPsec connection to use the EAP-TLS authentication.
D. Configure a L2TP/IPsec connection to use version 2 of the MS-CHAP v2 authentication.
Answer: C
45. You manage a computer named FTPSrv1 that runs Windows Server 2008.
Your company policy requires that the FTP service be available only when required by authorized projects.
You need to ensure that the FTP service is unavailable after restarting the server.
What should you do?
A. Run the iisreset command on the FTPSrv1 server.
B. Run the net stop msftpsvc command on the FTP server.
C. Run the suspend-service msftpsvc cmdlet in Microsoft Windows PowerShell tool.
D. Run the WMIC /NODE:FTPSrv1 SERVICE WHERE caption=”FTP Publishing Service” CALL ChangeStartMode “Disabled” command on the FTP server.
Answer: D
46. Your company has a main office and 10 branch offices. Each office is configured as a separate site. Each office has a read-only domain controller (RODC) server.
Users in the remote offices are unable to log on to their user accounts.
You need to ensure that the cached credentials for user accounts are stored only on the RODC server for the users local office.
What should you do?
A. Configure a separate Password Replication Policy on each RODC computer account.
B. Add the user accounts to the Domain RODC Password Replication Allowed Group domain security group.
C. Set Allow on the Receive as permission only for the desired user accounts on the RODC computer account Security tab.
D. Create a separate security group for each office. Add the user accounts to the corresponding group. Add the groups to the Domain RODC Password Replication Allowed Group domain security group.
Answer: A
47. Your corporate network has a member server named RAS1 that runs Windows Server 2008. You configure RAS1 to use the Routing and Remote Access Service (RRAS).
The companys remote access policy allows members of the Domain Users group to dial in to RAS1. The company issues smart cards to all employees.
You need to ensure that smart card users are able to connect to RAS1 by using a dial-up connection.
What should you do?
A. Install the Network Policy Server (NPS) on the RAS1 server.
B. Create a remote access policy that requires users to authenticate by using SPAP.
C. Create a remote access policy that requires users to authenticate by using EAP-TLS.
D. Create a remote access policy that requires users to authenticate by using MS-CHAP v2.
Answer: C
48. You install the FTP role service on a server that runs Windows Server 2008. Users receive an error message when they attempt to upload files to the FTP site.
You need to allow authenticated users to upload files to the FTP site.
What should you do?
A. Run the ftp Ca 192.168.1.200 command on the server that runs Windows Server 2008.
B. Run the appcmd unlock config command on the server that runs Windows Server 2008.
C. Configure Write permissions on the FTP site. Configure the NTFS permissions on the FTP destination folder for the Authenticated Users group to Allow - Modify.
D. Configure Write permissions on the FTP site. Configure the NTFS permissions on the FTP destination folder for the Authenticated Users group to Allow C Write attributes.
Answer: C
49. Your company has a main office and 40 branch offices. Each branch office is configured as a separate Active Directory site that has a dedicated read-only domain controller (RODC).
An RODC server is stolen from one of the branch offices.
You need to identify the user accounts that were cached on the stolen RODC server.
Which utility should you use?
A. Dsmod.exe
B. Ntdsutil.exe
C. Active Directory Sites and Services
D. Active Directory Users and Computers
Answer: D
50. Your company has 10 servers that run Windows Server 2008. The servers have RDP enabled for server administration. RDP is configured to use default security settings. All administrators’ computers run Windows Vista.
You need to ensure the RDP connections are as secure as possible.
Which two actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)
A. Set the security layer for each server to the RDP Security Layer.
B. Configure the firewall on each server to block port 3389.
C. Acquire user certificates from the internal certificate authority.
D. Configure each server to allow connections only to Remote Desktop client computers that use Network Level Authentication.
Answer: C AND D
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70-649 (2)
Friday, January 16th, 200921. Your company has an Active Directory domain. The company runs Terminal Services.
Standard users who connect to the Terminal Server are in the TSUsers organizational unit (OU). Administrative users are in the TSAdmins OU. No other users connect to the Terminal Server.
You need to ensure that only members of the TSAdmins OU can run the Remote Desktop Protocol files.
What should you do?
A. Create a Group Policy object (GPO) that configures the Allow .rdp files from unknown publishers policy setting in the Remote Desktop Client Connection template to Disabled. Apply the GPO to the TSUsers OU.
B. Create a Group Policy object (GPO) that configures the Allow .rdp files from valid publishers and users default .rdp settings policy setting in the Remote Desktop Client Connection template to Disabled. Apply the GPO to the TSUsers OU.
C. Create a Group Policy object (GPO) that configures the Allow .rdp files from valid publishers and users default .rdp settings policy setting in the Remote Desktop Client Connection template to Enabled. Apply the GPO to the TSAdmins OU.
D. Create a Group Policy object (GPO) that configures the Specify SHA1 thumbprints of certificates representing trusted .rdp publishers policy setting in the Remote Desktop Client Connection template to Enabled. Apply the GPO to the TSAdmins OU.
Answer: B
22. Your company has an Active Directory domain. The company runs Terminal Services. You configure the main office printer as the default printer on the Terminal Server.
The company policy states that all remote client computers must meet the following requirements:
The main office printer must be the default printer of the client computers.
Users must be able to access their local printers during a terminal session.
You need to create a Group Policy Object by using the Terminal Services Printer Redirection template to meet the company policy.
What should you do?
A. Set the Easy Print driver first option to Disabled. Apply the GPO to the Terminal Server.
B. Set the Use Terminal Services Easy Print driver first option to Disabled. Apply the GPO to all the client computers.
C. Set the Do not set default client printer to be default printer in a session option to Enabled. Apply the GPO to the Terminal Server.
D. Set the Do not set default client printer to be default printer in a session option to Enabled. Apply the GPO to all the client computers.
Answer: C
23. Your company runs Terminal Services. You plan to install an application update for the lobapp.exe application on the Terminal Server. You find instances of the lobapp.exe processes left behind by users who have disconnected.
You need to terminate all instances of the lobapp.exe processes so that you can perform an application update.
What are two possible ways to achieve this goal? (Each correct answer presents a complete solution. Choose two.)
A. Run the Get-Process cmdlet on the Terminal Server.
B. Run the Tskill lobapp /a command on the Terminal Server.
C. End all instances of lobapp.exe in the Terminal Services Manager console.
D. Run the Tasklist /fi “IMAGENAME eq lobapp.exe” command on the Terminal Server.
Answer: B AND C
24. Your company has an Active Directory domain. The company runs Terminal Services. All Terminal Services accounts are configured to allow session takeover without permission.
A user has logged on to a server named Server2 by using an account named User1. The session ID for User1 is 1337.
You need to perform a session takeover for session ID 1337.
Which commands should you run?
A. Chgusr 1337 /disable, and then Tscon 1337
B. Takeown /U User1 1337, and then Tscon 1337
C. Tsdiscon 1337, and then Chgport /U User1 1337
D. Tsdiscon 1337, and then Tscon 1337
Answer: D
25. Your company has a single Active Directory domain. The company network is protected by a firewall.
Remote users connect to your network through a VPN server by using PPTP.
When the users try to connect to the VPN server, they receive the following error message: Error 721: The remote computer is not responding.
You need to ensure that users can establish a VPN connection.
What should you do?
A. Open port 1423 on the firewall.
B. Open port 1723 on the firewall.
C. Open port 3389 on the firewall.
D. Open port 6000 on the firewall.
Answer: B
26. Your company has a server that runs an instance of Active Directory Lightweight Directory Service (AD LDS).
You need to create new organizational units in the AD LDS application directory partition.
What should you do?
A. Use the Active Directory Users and Computers snap-in to create the organizational units on the AD LDS application directory partition.
B. Use the ADSI Edit snap-in to create the organizational units on the AD LDS application directory partition.
C. Use the dsadd OU <OrganizationalUnitDN> command to create the organizational units.
D. Use the dsmod OU <OrganizationalUnitDN> command to create the organizational units.
Answer: B
27. Your company has a single Active Directory domain. The domain has servers that run Windows Server 2008. You have a server named NAT1 that functions as a NAT server.
You need to ensure that administrators can access a server named RDP1 by using Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP).
What should you do?
A. Configure NAT1 to forward port 389 to RDP1.
B. Configure NAT1 to forward port 1432 to RDP1.
C. Configure NAT1 to forward port 3339 to RDP1.
D. Configure NAT1 to forward port 3389 to RDP1.
Answer: D
28. You install the Web Server (IIS) role on a server that runs Windows Server 2008. You configure a Web site named contoso.com and a Web application named Acctg on the Web server.
The Web server runs out of disk space. You move Acctg to another drive on the Web server.
The following table shows the current application configuration.
|
Application |
Web location |
Original location |
New location |
|
Acctg |
contoso/Acctg |
d:\Acctg |
f:\Acctg |
Users report that they cannot access Acctg.
You need to enable users to access Acctg.
Which command should you run on the server?
A. appcmd add app /site.name: contoso /path:/Acctg /physicalPath:d:\Acctg
B. appcmd add app /site.name: contoso /path:/Acctg /physicalPath:f:\Acctg
C. appcmd set app /site.name: contoso /path:/Acctg /physicalPath:d:\Acctg
D. appcmd set app /site.name: contoso /path:/Acctg /physicalPath:f:\Acctg
Answer: D
29. Your company has a server that runs Windows Server 2008. The server runs an instance of Active Directory Lightweight Directory Services (AD?LDS).
You need to replicate the AD?LDS instance on a test computer that is located on the network.
What should you do?
A. Run the repadmin /kcc <servername> command on the test computer.
B. Create a naming context by running the Dsmgmt command on the test computer.
C. Create a new directory partition by running the Dsmgmt command on the test computer.
D. Create and install a replica by running the AD LDS Setup wizard on the test computer.
Answer: D
30. Your company has users who connect remotely to the main office through a Windows Server 2008 VPN server.
You need to ensure that users cannot access the VPN server remotely from 22:00 to 05:00.
What should you do?
A. Create a network policy for VPN connections. Modify the Day and time restrictions.
B. Create a network policy for VPN connections. Apply an IP filter to deny access to the corporate network.
C. Modify the Logon hours for all user objects to specify only the VPN server on the Computer restrictions option.
D. Modify the Logon Hours for the default domain policy to enable the Force logoff when logon hours expire option.
Answer: A
31. You deploy a Windows Server 2008 VPN server behind a firewall. Remote users connect to the VPN by using portable computers that run Windows Vista with the latest service pack.
The firewall is configured to allow only secured Web communications.
You need to enable remote users to connect as securely as possible. You must achieve this goal without opening any additional ports on the firewall.
What should you do?
A. Create an IPsec tunnel.
B. Create an SSTP VPN connection.
C. Create a PPTP VPN connection.
D. Create an L2TP VPN connection.
Answer: B
32. Your network contains a server that runs Windows Server 2008. The server has the Network Policy Server (NPS) service role installed.
You need to allow only members of a global group named Group1 VPN access to the network.
What should you do?
A. Add Group1 to the RAS and IAS Servers group.
B. Add Group1 to the Network Configuration Operators group.
C. Create a new network policy and define a group-based condition for Group1. Set the access permission of the policy to Access granted. Set the processing order of the policy to 1.
D. Create a new network policy and define a group-based condition for Group1. Set the access permission of the policy to Access granted. Set the processing order of the policy to 3.
Answer: C
33. You have a server that runs Windows Server 2008.
You need to configure the server as a VPN server.
What should you install on the server?
A. Windows Deployment Services role and Deployment Server role service.
B. Windows Deployment Services role and Deployment Transport Role Service.
C. Network Policy and Access Services role and Routing and Remote Access Services role service.
D. Network Policy and Access Services role and Host Credential Authorization Protocol role service.
Answer: C
34. You have a Windows Server 2008 server that has the Web Server (IIS) server role installed. The server hosts multiple Web sites.
You need to configure the server to automatically release memory for a single Web site. You must achieve this goal without affecting the other Web sites.
What should you do?
A. Create a new Web site and edit the bindings for the Web site.
B. Create a new application pool and associate the Web site to the application pool.
C. Create a new virtual directory and modify the Physical Path Credentials on the virtual directory.
D. From the Application Pool Defaults, modify the Recycling options.
Answer: B
35. Your company has an Active Directory Rights Management Services (AD?RMS) server. Users have Windows Vista computers. An Active Directory domain is configured at the Windows Server 2003 functional level.
You need to configure AD?RMS so that users are able to protect their documents.
What should you do?
A. Install the AD?RMS client 2.0 on each client computer.
B. Add the RMS service account to the local administrators group on the AD?RMS server.
C. Establish an e-mail account in Active Directory Domain Services (AD?DS) for each RMS user.
D. Upgrade the Active Directory domain to the functional level of Windows Server 2008.
Answer: C
36. Your company has an Active Directory forest that runs at the functional level of Windows Server 2008. You implement Active Directory Rights Management Services (AD?RMS). You install Microsoft SQL Server 2005. When you attempt to open the AD?RMS administration Web site, you receive the following error message: “SQL Server does not exist or access denied.”
You need to open the AD?RMS administration Web site.
Which two actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)
A. Restart IIS.
B. Install Message Queuing.
C. Start the MSSQLSVC service.
D. Manually delete the Service Connection Point in AD DS and restart AD?RMS.
Answer: A AND C
37. Network Access Protection (NAP) is configured for the corporate network.
Users connect to the corporate network by using portable computers.
The company policy requires confidentiality of data when the data is in transit between the portable computers and the servers.
You need to ensure that users can access network resources only from computers that comply with the company policy.
What should you do?
A. Create an IPsec Enforcement Network policy.
B. Create an 802.1X Enforcement Network policy.
C. Create a Wired Network (IEEE 802.3) Group policy.
D. Create an Extensible Authentication Protocol (EAP) Enforcement Network policy.
Answer: A
38. Your company has a single Active Directory domain and an enterprise root certificate authority. The company plans to use Network Access Protection (NAP) to protect the VPN connections.
You build two servers named NPS1 and VPN1. You configure the following functions on the two servers as shown in the following table.
|
Server Name |
Server Function |
|
NPS1 |
Network Policy Server (NPS), Remediation Server, System Health Validation Server |
|
VPN1 |
VPN Server, RADIUS Server |
You need to ensure that the system health policy is applied to all client computers that attempt VPN connections.
What should you do?
A. Reconfigure NPS1 as a RADIUS client.
B. Reconfigure VPN1 as a RADIUS client.
C. Add the NAP role to a domain controller.
D. Add the NAP role to an Enterprise Certificate server.
Answer: B
39. You have a server that runs Windows Server 2008. The Web Server (IIS) role is installed.
You plan to host multiple Web sites on the server. You configure a single IP address for the server. All Web sites are registered in DNS to point to the single IP address.
You need to ensure that each Web site only responds to requests by name from all client computers.
What should you do?
A. Configue a unique port for each Web site.
B. Configue a unique IP address for each Web site.
C. Configue a unique Host Header for each Web site.
D. Edit the Hosts file on the server to add all the Web site names associated to the network address.
Answer: C
40. Your company’s corporate network uses Network Access Protection (NAP).
Users are able to connect to the corporate network remotely.
You need to ensure that data transmissions between remote client computers and the corporate network are as secure as possible.
What should you do?
A. Apply an IPsec NAP policy.
B. Configure a NAP policy for 802.1x wireless connections.
C. Configure VPN connections to use MS-CHAP v2 authentication.
D. Restrict Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) clients by using NAP.
Answer: A
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70-649
Thursday, January 15th, 2009
1. You install the Windows Deployment Services (WDS) role on a server that runs Windows Server 2008.When you attempt to upload spanned image files to the WDS server, you receive an error message.You need to ensure that the image files can be uploaded.
What should you do?
A. Grant the Authenticated Users group Full Control on the \REMINST directory.
B. Run the wdsutil /Convert command at the command prompt on the WDS server.
C. Run the wdsutil /Export command at the command prompt to export *.swm files to one destination *.wim on the WDS server.
D. Run the wdsutil /add-image /imagefile:\\server\share\sources\install.wim /image type:install command for each component file individually at the command prompt on the WDS server.
Answer: C
2. You install the Windows Deployment Services (WDS) role on a server that runs Windows Server 2008.
You plan to install Windows Vista on a computer that does not support Preboot Execution Environment (PXE). You have a Windows Vista image that is stored on the WDS server.
You need to start the computer and install the image that is stored on the WDS server.
What should you create?
A. a capture image
B. a CD-ROM that contains PXE drivers
C. a discover image
D. an install image
Answer: C
3. Your company has a server named VS1 that runs Windows Server 2008 and Microsoft Hyper-V. The VS1 server hosts 10 virtual servers.
A virtual server named VS-DB has one 64-GB fixed-size virtual hard disk (VHD). The VHD file name is disk1.vhd.You discover that VS-DB utilizes only 5 GB of the VHD.You turn off the VS-DB virtual server and want to regain the unused disk space on the VS1 physical server.You need to configure VS-DB to make the disk1.vhd file as small as possible.What should you do? (To answer, move the appropriate tasks from the list of tasks to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.)
Tasks Answer Area
A. Compact the disk2.vhd file.
B. Delete the disk1.vhd file. Rename disk2.vhd to disk1.vhd.
C. Convert the disk2.vhd file to a new fixed-size VHD file named disk1.vhd.
D. Convert the disk1.vhd file to a new dynamically expanding VHD file named disk2.vhd.
E. Create a new differencing VHD file named disk2.vhd that has disk1.vhd as a parent disk.
Answer: D BEFORE A AND A BEFORE B AND ONLY D, A, B
4. Your company has a server that runs Windows Server 2008 and Microsoft Hyper-V.
You have two virtual machines that run Microsoft Windows 2003 Server.
You need to configure the virtual machines so that you can revert to a previous state.
What should you do?
A. Back up all the volumes on each Windows 2003 server.
B. Back up the system state on each Windows 2003 server.
C. Copy the .vmc files for each of the virtual machines to a backup folder.
D. Take a snapshot of the virtual machines by using the Virtual Services Manager console.
Answer: D
5. You have a server that runs Windows Server 2008. The server has the Windows Server virtualization role service installed.
You create a new virtual machine and perform an installation of Windows Server 2008 on the virtual machine. You configure the virtual machine to use the physical network card of the host server.
You notice that you are unable to access network resources from the virtual machine.
You need to ensure that the virtual host can connect to the physical network.
What should you do?
A. On the host server, install the MS Loopback adapter.
B. On the host server, enable the Multipath I/O feature.
C. On the virtual machine, install the MS Loopback adapter.
D. On the virtual machine, install Windows Server virtualization Guest Integration Components.
Answer: D
6. You have a server that runs Windows Server 2008. The server has the Windows Server virtualization role service installed and has one virtual machine. The virtual machine runs Windows Server 2008.
You plan to install a new application on the virtual machine.
You need to ensure that you can restore the virtual machine to its original state in the event the application installation fails.
What should you do?
A. Log on to the virtual host and enable the Remote Differential Compression Features.
B. Log on to the virtual host and enable the Windows Recovery Disk feature.
C. From Virtualization Management Console, create a snapshot.
D. From Virtualization Management Console, save the state of the virtual machine.
Answer: C
7. Your company named Contoso, Ltd. has a two-node Network Load Balancing cluster. The cluster is intended to provide high availability and load balancing for only the intranet Web site. The name of the cluster is web.contoso.com.
You discover that Contoso users can see the Network Load Balancing cluster in the network neighborhood and can connect to various services by using the web.contoso.com name. The web.contoso.com Network Load Balancing cluster is configured with only one port rule.
You need to configure the web.contoso.com Network Load Balancing cluster to accept only HTTP traffic.
Which two actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)
A. Log on to one of the cluster nodes and run the wlbs disable all command.
B. Open the Network Load Balancing Clusters console and delete the default port rules.
C. Open the Network Load Balancing Clusters console and create a new Allow rule for TCP port 80.
D. Open the Network Load Balancing Clusters console and change the default port rule to a disabled port range rule.
Answer: B AND C
8. You have two servers named FC1 and FC2 that run Windows Server 2008 Enterprise Edition. Both servers have the Failover Clustering feature installed. You configure the servers as a two-node cluster.
The cluster runs an application named APP1. Business hours for your company are 09:00 to 17:00. APP1 must be available during these hours. You configure FC1 as the preferred owner for APP1.
You need to prevent failback of the cluster during business hours.
What should you do?
A. Set the Period option to 8 hours in the Failover properties.
B. Set the Allow failback option to allow failback between 17 and 9 hours in the Failover properties.
C. Enable the Prevent failback option in the Failover properties.
D. Enable the If resource fails, attempt restart on current node policy for all APP1 resources. Set the Maximum restarts for specified period to 0.
Answer: B
9. Your company has a single Active Directory domain. All the servers run Windows Server 2008. You have a server named FS1 that has the File Services role installed.
The disks are configured as shown in the following exhibitYou need to create a new drive volume to support data striping with parity.
What should you do?
A. Add another disk. Create a New RAID-5 Volume.
B. Create a new Striped Volume by using Disk 1 and Disk 2.
C. Create a New Mirrored Volume by using Disk 1 and Disk 2.
D. Create a New Spanned Volume by using Disk 1 and Disk 2.
Answer: A
10. Your company has a single Active Directory domain. All servers run Windows Server 2008.
You install an iSCSI storage area network (SAN) for a group of file servers.
Corporate security policy requires that all data communication to and from the iSCSI SAN must be as secure as possible.
You need to implement the highest security available for communications to and from the iSCSI SAN.
What should you do?
A. Create a Group Policy object (GPO) to enable the System objects: Strengthen default permission of internal systems objects setting.
B. Create a Group Policy object (GPO) to enable the System cryptography: Use FIPS compliant algorithms for encryption, hashing, and signing setting.
C. Implement IPsec security in the iSCSI Initiator Properties. Set up inbound and outbound rules by using Windows Firewall.
D. Implement mutual Microsoft Challenge Handshake Authentication Protocol (MS-CHAPv2) authentication in the iSCSI Initiator Properties. Set up inbound and outbound rules by using Windows Firewall.
Answer: C
11. A server runs Windows Server 2008. The Terminal Services role is installed on the server.
You deploy a new application on the server. The application creates files that have an extension of .xyz.
You need to ensure that users can launch the remote application from their computers by double-clicking a file that has the .xyz extension.
What should you do?
A. Configure the Remote Desktop Connection Client on the users’ computers to point to the server.
B. Configure the application as a published application by using a Remote Desktop Program file.
C. Configure the application as a published application by using a Windows Installer package file.
D. Configure the application as a published application by using a Terminal Server Web Access Web site.
Answer: C
12. Your company has an Active Directory domain. The company has a server named Server1 that has the Terminal Services role and the Terminal Services Web Access role installed. All client computers run Windows XP Service Pack 2 (SP2).
You deploy and publish an application named TimeReport on Server1. The Terminal Services Web Access role uses Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS) and Network Level Authentication is enabled.
You need to ensure that the users can launch TimeReport on Server1 from the Terminal Services Web Access Web page.
What should you do?
A. Disable publishing to AD DS for the TimeReport remote application.
B. Install the Remote Desktop Client 6.1 application on the client computers that run Windows XP SP2.
C. Publish TimeReport on Server1 as a Microsoft Windows Installer package. Distribute the Windows Installer package to the users.
D. Install the Terminal Services Gateway (TS Gateway) role on Server1. Reconfigure the TimeReport remote application publishing to reflect the change in the infrastructure.
Answer: B
13. Your company has an Active Directory domain. The company has a server named Server1 that has the Terminal Services role and the Terminal Services Web Access role installed. The company has a server named Server2 that runs ISA Server 2006.
The company deploys the Terminal Services Gateway (TS Gateway) role on a new server named Server3. The company wants to use ISA as the SSL endpoint for Terminal Server connections.
You need to configure the TS Gateway role on Server3 to use ISA 2006 on Server2.
What should you do?
A. Configure the TS Gateway to use SSL HTTPS-HTTP bridging.
B. Configure the Terminal Services Connection Authorization Policy Store on Server3 to use Server2 as the Central Network Policy Server.
C. Export the SSL certificate from Server2 and install the SSL certificate on Server3. Configure the TS Gateway to use the SSL certificate from Server2.
D. Export a self-signed SSL certificate from Server3 and install the SSL certificate on Server2. Configure the ISA service on Server2 to use the SSL certificate from Server3.
Answer: A
14. You have a server that runs Windows Server 2008. The server has the Terminal Services Gateway (TS Gateway) role service installed.
You need to provide a security group access to the TS Gateway server.
What should you do?
A. Add the security group to the Remote Desktop Users group.
B. Add the security group to the TS Web Access Computers group.
C. Create and configure a Resource Authorization Policy.
D. Create and configure a Connection Authorization Policy.
Answer: D
15. Your company has an Active Directory domain. All servers in the domain run Windows Server 2008.
The Terminal Services Gateway (TS Gateway) role service is installed on a server named Server1. The Terminal Services role is installed on servers named Server2 and Server3. Server2 and Server3 are configured in a load balancing Terminal Server farm named TSLoad.
You install and configure the Terminal Services (TS) Session Broker service on a new server named Server4.
You need to configure Server2 and Server3 to join the TS Session Broker.
What should you do next?
A. Configure Server2 and Server3 to use the TS Gateway role service to access TS Session Broker.
B. Create a new Group Policy object (GPO) that assigns Server4 to Server2 and Server3 as their session broker server. Apply the GPO to Server2 and Server3.
C. Configure a Group Policy object (GPO) to set the Set TS Gateway server address option in the Terminal Services Security section to Server1. Apply the GPO to all client computers.
D. Configure a Group Policy object (GPO) to set the Require secure RPC communications option in the Terminal Services Security section to False. Apply the GPO to Server2 and Server3.
Answer: B
16. You have four Terminal Servers that run Windows Server 2008. The Terminal Servers are named Server1, Server2, Server3, and Server4.
You install the Terminal Server Session Broker role service on Server1.
You need to configure load balancing for the four Terminal Servers. You must ensure that Server2 is the preferred server for Terminal Services sessions.
Which tool should you use?
A. Group Policy Manager
B. Terminal Services Configuration
C. Terminal Services Manager
D. TS Gateway Manager
Answer: B
17. You manage a member server that runs Windows Server 2008. The server runs the Terminal Server Gateway (TS Gateway) role service.
You need to find out whether a user named User1 has ever connected to his office workstation through the TS Gateway server.
What should you do?
A. View the events in the Monitoring folder from the TS Gateway Manager console.
B. View the Event Viewer Security log.
C. View the Event Viewer Application log.
D. View the Event Viewer Terminal Services-Gateway log.
Answer: D
18. You manage a member server that runs Windows Server 2008. The server has the Terminal Services role installed. Microsoft Windows System Resource Manager (WSRM) is installed on the server.
Users report performance degradation on the Terminal Server. You monitor the server and notice that one user is consuming 100 percent of the processor time.
You create a resource-allocation policy named Policy1 that limits each user to 30 percent of the total processor time. You observe no performance improvement.
You need to configure WSRM to enforce Policy1.
What should you do?
A. Set Policy1 as the Profiling Policy.
B. Set Policy1 as the Managing Policy.
C. Restart the Terminal Services Configuration service.
D. Launch the WSRM application by using the user context of the Terminal Server System account.
Answer: B
19. Your company has an Active Directory domain. The Terminal Services role is installed on a member server named TS01. The Terminal Services Licensing role service is installed on a new test server named TS10 in a workgroup.
You cannot enable the Terminal Services Per User Client Access License (TS Per User CAL) mode in the Terminal Services Licensing role service on TS10.
You need to ensure that you can use TS Per User CAL mode on TS10.
What should you do?
A. Join TS10 to the domain.
B. Disjoin TS01 from the domain.
C. Extend the schema to add attributes for Terminal Services Licensing.
D. Create a Group Policy object (GPO) that configures TS01 to use TS10 for licensing.
Answer: A
20. Your company has a Windows Server 2003 Active Directory domain. A server named Server1 runs Windows Server 2008. The Terminal Services role is installed on Server1. A server named Server2 runs Windows Server 2003. The Terminal Services Licensing role service is installed on Server2.
You need to configure the Terminal Services Per User Client Access License (TS Per User CAL) tracking and reporting to work on both Server1 and Server2.
What should you do?
A. Rename Server1 to have the same computer name as the domain and join it to a workgroup.
B. Add Server1 to the servers managed by the Windows Server 2003 Terminal Services Licensing service.
C. Uninstall the Terminal Services Licensing role on Server2 and install that role on Server1. Configure TS Per User CAL tracking and reporting on Server1.
D. Activate the Terminal Services Licensing Server on Server 2.
Answer: C
HP0-G11
Wednesday, January 14th, 20091. Which additional members are recommended to be added to the HP SAM Administrator access list? (Select two.)
A. security group
B. service account
C. individual name(s)
D. domain administrator
E. local SAM server administrator
Answer: AC
2. Which two HP PC Blade Switch features are used to provide redundant network connectivity? (Select two.)
A. Spanning Tree Protocol
B. Link Aggregation Protocol
C. Hot Standby Router Protocol
D. Split Multi-Link Trunk Protocol
E. Virtual Router Redundancy Protocol
Answer: AB
3. Which version of RGS may CCI users deploy?
A. RHEL 4.0
B. PC Edition
C. Enterprise Edition
D. Windows Vista Edition
Answer: B
4. CCI users are unable to save their documents to a NAS. After checking the Active Directory setup, you verify that all users have been placed in the proper OU, named CCIUsers, and the associated group policy is properly redirecting the users’ folders.
However, when any attempt is made to save a document, an Access Denied error is receiveD. Checking the folder that the file should be saved to, you notice one of the NTFS permissions is incorrect, thereby preventing the document from being saveD.
Which of the following permissions would allow CCI users to save their documents?
A. DesktopUsers: Allow List Folder Contents; This folder
B. SYSTEM: Allow Full Control; This folder, subfolders and files
C. Administrators: Allow Full Control; This folder, subfolders and files
D. CCIUsers: Allow Read & Execute; This folder, subfolders and files
Answer: B
5. How does CCI enable Business Continuity for end users? (Select two.)
A. Blade PCs consume only about 25-40 watts per blade; this power savings is a benefit to data center managers responsible for the budget.
B. CCI enables image replacement and rebalancing, so all blade PC users will have the same network performance no matter where they login from.
C. CCI makes full use of the Active Directory schema; therefore, users are always guaranteed to be directed to the same blade PC regardless of what location they login from.
D. CCI uses Microsofts free Remote Desktop Connection (RDC) software, so end users can install it on their personal computer to access their blade PC.
E. CCI blade PCs are distributed, so if power is lost to one enclosure, rack or data center, users can quickly be reallocated to blade PCs in another enclosure, rack, or data center.
Answer: DE
6. The CCI end users experience can be negatively impacted by network latency. At which point does latency become typically unacceptable?
A. 1 to 100 ms
B. 100 to 200 ms
C. 200 to 250 ms
D. above 250 ms
Answer: C
7. CCI redefines the traditional networked desktop PC into three tiers. What are those three tiers?
A. network, storage and security
B. access, compute and resource
C. user, administrative and network
D. monitor, motherboard and keyboard
Answer: B
8. Which directory service is fully supported in CCI?
A. Novell eDirectory
B. Microsoft Active Directory (AD)
C. Lightweight Directory Access Protocol (LDAP)
D. HP OpenView Directory Service
Answer: B
9. By design, which benefit does the CCI solution provide over a traditional PC?
A. improved resource security
B. improved off-line experience
C. increased total cost of ownership
D. improved video streaming performance
Answer: A
10. In the CCI solution, what types of data travels between the client access device and the blade PC? (Select two.)
A. encrypted keyboard and mouse input
B. hardware-encrypted streaming media
C. compressed screen images and audio
D. raw screen images and bi-directional audio
E. application streaming with interactive content
Answer: AC
11. When comparing a traditional PC environment to a “dynamic” implementation of HP’s CCI solution in which the end users are using thin clients as access devices, how is CCI different?
A. A blade PC can do a better job of rendering full-screen, full-motion video files than a desktop PC.
B. Routers on a public network are bi-directional, enabling the CCI solution to take advantage of retroactive time stamping of all data transmissions.
C. Even if the access device is stolen or destroyed, an end user can quickly log back on from any networked location and access his applications and data files.
D. Data files are stored on the access device in a dynamic implementation of CCI. However, they are erased when the thin client is power cycled or rebooted, so the data is safE.
Answer: C
12. Which ports carry SNMP traffic in a standard environment or configuration? (Select two.)
A. 21
B. 22
C. 161
D. 162
E. 1433
Answer: CD
13. Which command registers new MIBs in HP SIM?
A. mxmib -a
B. mxmib -1
C. mcompile -a
D. mcompile -1
Answer: A
14. Which command compiles a MIB for HP SIM?
A. compile
B. mcompile
C. mxmib -c
D. mcompile
Answer: D
15. HP SIM displays a system type of Unknown. What are possible causes? (Select two.)
A. The wrong version of HP SIM Client is installeD.
B. The system may not be responding to ping requests.
C. Routers and switches on the network are configured to block ports 80 and 8080.
D. Routers and switches on the network are configured to block ports 161 and 162.
E. WBEM (WMI) userID/passwords on the SIM CMS may not match the managed system.
Answer: DE
16. HP SIM displays a system type of UnmanageD. What are the possible causes? (Select two.)
A. The HP SIM Client is not installeD.
B. The system may not be responding to ping requests.
C. Routers and switches on the network are configured to block port 1433.
D. Community strings settings on the SIM CMS may not match the managed system.
E. WBEM (WMI) userID/passwords on the SIM CMS may not match the managed system.
aged system.
Answer: DE
17. How do you configure the HP PC Blade Enclosure IA and HP PC Blade Switch to send alerts to the HP System Insight Manager Console (HP SIM)? (Select two.)
A. configure HP System Insight Manager WBEM settings to include the IP addresses of the Integrated Administrator and HP PC Blade Switch
B. configure Integrated Administrator and HP PC Blade Switch to use an IP address in the same subnet as the HP System Insight Manager Server
C. configure HP System Insight Manager System Automatic Discovery Ping range to include the IP ranges of the Integrated Administrator and HP PC Blade Switch
D. configure Integrated Administrator and HP PC Blade Switch SNMP community string and destination IP address to match the HP System Insight Manager Server
Answer: CD
18. During installation of the HP SAM Web server, which account type does HP recommend to use as the owner of the HP SAM Web site?
A. user account
B. service account
C. local administrator account
D. domain guest account
Answer: B
19. HP Sygate Security Agent is installed and enabled on the access devicE. Which application and port exception is required to enable the HP SAM Web client to communicate to available resources?
A. MstsC. exe:3389
B. IExplorE. exe:3389
C. DaesvC. exe:47777
D. HPrdcw32.exe:3389
Answer: B
20. A customer has just installed and configured a complete HP CCI environment using HP SAM. When the client attempts to connect to a known available resource from the SAM client on his local PC, he receives a message that no resources are availablE. Upon further investigation, the SAM administrator notices all resources in a given role go offline when users attempt to connect to that rolE.
What should the administrator do?
A. Verify that the SAM Web server is configured using failover.
B. Verify that there is a firewall exception for the SAM Registration ServicE.
C. Verify that there is a port exception for the client service port on the local PC.
D. Verify that the Remote Desktop Protocol is enabled on the blade and the user is granted access.
Answer: B
21. What is the default service port that the SAM Registration Service uses to contact the HP SAM Web Server?
A. 443
B. 3389
C. 1024
D. 47777
Answer: D
22. Which component is required before installation of the SAM Web Server?
A. Microsoft ASP.NET
B. HP Rapid Deployment Pack
C. HP SAM Registration Service
D. HP Remote Graphics Software (RGS) Sender
Answer: A
23. After changing the default HP SAM Web Server port in the Internet Information Service Manager (IIS), which additional file do you need to modify?
A. iis.config
B. hprdC. sam
C. hpevent.cfg
D. connection.config
Answer: D
24. If no license key is entered, how many blade PCs can be registered in SAM?
A. none
B. 30
C. 50
D. 100
E. unlimited mpile
Answer: B
25. Which HP SAM client does not support Automatic Failover?
A. Web client
B. Windows CE client
C. Windows XPe client
D. Blade Workstation Client Embedded OS client
Answer: A
26. When a Japanese user attempts to connect to an available resource using the HP SAM Web Client on her XPe thin client, she is unable to see the Japanese characters. What should be verified before taking any steps to resolve this issue?
A. that Japanese fonts are installed on the thin client
B. that the value is correct in the weB. config file
C. that the two-character language identifier option for UILanguage is properly set in the HPRDC. sam file
D. that Japanese is selected in the Web Client page (on the System Settings tab) of the Web Admin console
Answer: A
27. The SAM administrator adds a user, Bob Smith, into a role named FinancE. He then sets the SAM policies as follows:
The Global Policy is set for a resolution of 1024×768 and a color depth of 16-bit.
Bob is given a policy which specifies 800×600 and does not specify a color deptH.
The Finance role is given a policy which specifies a resolution of 640×480 and color depth of 8-bit.
When Bob connects via the SAM client using the MS RDP protocol, which resolution and color depth will he see?
A. 640×480, 8-bit
B. 800×600, 8-bit
C. 800×600, 16-bit
D. 1024×768, 16-bit
Answer: B
28. In a multi-monitor configuration using the Monitor Layout feature in SAM, why would a users session windows be displayed on only one monitor? (Select two.)
A. The user has not been added into the SAM databasE.
B. The sessions are connecting using the MS RDP protocol.
C. The offset values are set to 0 in the users Monitor Layout ID settings.
D. The users effective policy is forcing a specific resolution to be set for each session.
E. The Dedicated Resources option has been selected for Multi-Session Autoconnection in the SAM Web Admin System Settings.
Answer: BC
29. What should the administrator check when a user cannot connect via the 32bit SAM Client using his Smart Card?
A. Ensure the UIMode option in the .SAM file is not set to 0.
B. Ensure the NetworkAuthentication option in the .SAM file is not set to 0.
C. Ensure the SmartCardCSP option in the .SAM file is set to the correct strinG.
D. Ensure Smart Card login is not set to Disallowed in the SAM Web Admin System Settings.
Answer: C
30. Reassigning a new role to a resource using the SAM Web Admin console causes SAM to ignore any roles specified in the hpevent.cfg filE. Once this has been done, how do you return the original settings so that roles are assigned by hpevent.cfg?
A. Delete the new role from the SAM Manage Resource Roles pagE.
B. Delete the resource from the SAM Manage Resources page and restart the blade PC.
C. Select the resource in the SAM Manage Resources page, choose Assign Roles, uncheck all roles, and savE.
D. Click the details icon for the resource in the SAM Manage Resources page and delete the role listed under Effective Roles.
Answer: B
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