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1. Which one of the following statements correctly describes an FXO interface?
A. analog trunks that connect a gateway to plain old telephone service (POTS) device such as analog phones, fax machines, and legacy voice-mail systems
B. analog trunks that provide the Survivable Remote Site Telephony (SRST) feature
C. analog trunks that provide VoIP gateway functionality
D. analog trunks that connect a gateway to a central office (CO) or private branch exchange (PBX)
Answer: D

2. Cisco AutoQoS is innovative technology that minimizes the complexity, time, and operating cost of Quality of Service (QoS) deployment. Which two steps are executed in the deployment of Cisco AutoQoS for Enterprise? (Choose two.)
A. The customer uses SNMP statistics to create the policy.
B. QoS policy templates are generated and installed on the interface.
C. The auto-generated policy is manually optimized before implementation.
D. Auto-discovery is used to determine what traffic is on the interface.
Answer: BD

3. Quality of Service (QoS) refers to the capability of a network to provide better service to selected network traffic over various technologies .Which two options are true about the application of QoS in a converged network? (Choose two.)
A. End-to-end network delay is not a factor as long as the delay is consistent.
B. Some packet loss can be corrected by codec algorithms.
C. End-to-end network delay times that exceed 50 ms for real-time traffic are considered unacceptable.
D. End-to-end network delay times that exceed 250 ms for real-time traffic are considered unacceptable.
Answer: BD

4. Network topology exhibit:
You are a network technician at TestInside.com, examine the exhibit carefully. You need to finalize the configuration of router TIS-R in this scenario. In particular you should decide which interface types can be used for connecting router TIS-R to the phone and fax respectively. (Choose two.)
 
A. Connect the analog phone to an FXS port.
B. Connect the fax to an FXS port.
C. Connect the fax to an FXO port.
D. Connect the analog phone to an FXO port.
Answer: AB

5. Look at the following options, which one is not a benefit of VoIP compared to traditional circuit-switched telephony?
A. Access to new communication devices
B. Consolidated network expenses
C. Improved employee productivity
D. Higher voice quality
Answer: D

6. On the basis of the following traffic descriptions, which one is used for marking?
A. FIFO Layer 2 descriptor labels (L2DL)
B. WRED (Weighted RED) orange or green labels
C. MPLS experimental bits
D. Header compression tags
Answer: B

7. You are a network technician at TestInside.com, do you know what are two of the three predefined classes for the Cisco SDM wizard? (Choose two.)
A. best effort
B. middle class
C. high priority
D. business-critical
Answer: AD

8. You work as a network technician, study the following options carefully.A GRE tunnel is configured between a local and a remote site. Where should the service policy be applied to classify packets based on the pretunnel header?
A. Apply the service policy on the physical interface but do not use the qos pre-classify command.
B. In global configuration mode, apply the service policy and use the qos pre-classify command.
C. In global configuration mode, apply the service policy but do not use the qos pre-classify command.
D. Apply the service policy on the tunnel interface but do not use the qos pre-classify command.
Answer: D

9. Which option is not considered one of the main methods to tackle the bandwidth availability problem?
A. Use compression techniques.
B. Increase (upgrade) the link bandwidth.
C. Forward large packets first.
D. Classify and mark traffic and deploy proper queuing mechanisms.
Answer: C

10. Refer to the capabilities of a voice gateway router ,which statement is true ?
A. Voice gateways need a gatekeeper to interconnect the VoIP networks with the PSTN network.
B. Voice gateways equipped with a DSP module can take the role of the call agent during WAN failure.
C. Voice gateways with Cisco Unified CallManager Express (CME) can permanently act as a call agent for IP phones.
D. Voice gateways with analog interfaces need a gatekeeper to convert analog signals into digital format before voice is encapsulated into IP packets.
Answer: C

11. You work as a network engineer at TestInside.com, study the exhibit carefully. What type of interface will connect the voice gateway router TIS1 to the TestInside phone and the fax machine?
 
A. The TestInside phone will be connected to the FXS port, and the fax machine will be connected to the FXO port on router TIS1.
B. Both devices will be connected to the E and M ports on router TIS1.
C. Both devices will be connected to the FXS ports on router TIS1.
D. The TestInside phone will be connected to the FXO port, and the fax machine will be connected to the FXS port on router TIS1.
Answer: C

12. You work as a network engineer at TestInside.com, so you should know the sampling rules. One of the most important rules of sampling is called the Nyquist Theorem, which states that the highest frequency which can be correctly represented is less than one-half of the sampling rate. On the basis of the Nyquist theorem, what sampling rate is required to support voice frequencies of up to 4000 Hz?
A. 4000 samples per second
B. 2000 samples per second
C. 6000 samples per second
D. 8000 samples per second
Answer: D

13. Cisco AutoQoS is innovative technology that minimizes the complexity, time, and operating cost of Quality of Service (QoS) deployment. Which option is correct about the configuration of AutoQoS on a Frame Relay interface?
A. Multilink PPP (MLP) over Frame Relay must be manually configured on low speed DLCIs.
B. AutoQoS can be configured on a Frame Relay DLCI only if a map class is attached to the DLCI.
C. For low-speed Frame Relay DLCIs with Frame Relay-to-ATM Interworking, the AutoQoS cannot be configured if a virtual template is already configured for the DLCI.
D. AutoQoS can be configured from a different subinterface if the DLCI is already assigned to one subinterface.
Answer: C

14. Wired Equivalent Privacy (WEP) is a deprecated algorithm to secure IEEE 802.11 wireless networks. Which one of the following statements is not a weakness of WEP?
A. Because with basic WEP the wireless client does not authenticate the access point, the client can be victimized by rogue access points.
B. With enough data captured, even with initialization vector used, the WEP key can be deducted.
C. WEP is vulnerable to dictionary attacks.
D. The WEP usage of certificates is not convenient for some customers.
Answer: D

15. If you are a network technician, can you tell me what are two major sources of delay that can be managed by QoS in voice-enabled networks? (Choose two.)
A. packets dropped because of CRC errors
B. propagation delay
C. header overhead
D. congested egress queues
Answer: CD

16. Which one of the following descriptions is correct about the Cisco 2700 Location Appliance collection of location information for wireless devices?
A. The APs collect received signal strength indication (RSSI) information from all Wi-Fi devices and forward the information to the Cisco Wireless Location Appliance through the LWAPP.
B. An AP collects RSSI information which is forwarded to wireless controllers through LWAPP. Wireless controllers forward aggregated RSSI to the location appliance through SNMP.
C. The Cisco WLAN controllers bypass the received signal strength indication (RSSI) information from all Wi-Fi devices to the Cisco Wireless Location Appliance through LWAPP.
D. All Wi-Fi devices on the WLAN send directly received signal strength indication (RSSI) information to the Cisco Wireless Location Appliance through SNMP.
Answer: B

17. You are a network technician at TestInside.com.Your task is to extend QoS in the TestInside network to include wireless LAN. In which device or devices is wireless QoS implemented for Cisco Lightweight AP split-MAC architecture?
A. The Wireless LAN Controller only
B. The AP only
C. Between the AP and Catalyst switch via 802.1p
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D. Between the AP and Wireless LAN Controller via LWAPP
Answer: D

18. Which two options about the DiffServ QoS model are correct? (Choose two.)
A. The flow-based approach of the DiffServ model is ideal for large scalable implementations such as the public Internet.
B. The DiffServ model is more scalable than the IntServ model.
C. DiffServ requires RSVP to set up a path through the network to accommodate the requested QoS.
D. Network traffic is identified by class, and the level of service is chosen for each class.
Answer: BD

19. WLSE-Express provides complete enterprise-class security and control in an integrated solution package. What are two features of WLSE-Express wireless management? (Choose two.)
A. centralized management with integrated AAA server
B. integration with the Location Appliance to expand real time tracking to 2500 devices for 30 days
C. integration with the Location Appliance to expand real time tracking to 1500 devices for 30 days
D. centralized management for autonomous access points
Answer: AD

20. Which one is not considered a valid classification traffic descriptor?
A. Source or destination address
B. Traffic path
C. IP precedence or DSCP value
D. Incoming interface
Answer: B

21. Which three descriptions are correct about the application of QoS models? (Choose three.)
A. The DiffServ model requires applications to signal the network with QoS requirements.
B. The best effort model is suitable for applications such as file transfer and e-mail
C. The IntServ model requires applications to signal the network with QoS requirements.
D. The DiffServ model can be used to deliver QoS based upon IP precedence, or source and destination addresses.
Answer: BCD

22. Study the exhibit carefully. The serial link connecting the two offices has a bandwidth of 128 kbps. What could be done to set aside 64 kbps of bandwidth to transport VoIP traffic over the WAN link?
 
A. Apply the auto-cost reference-bandwidth 64 command on both sides of the serial link.
B. Apply the ip bandwidth-percent eigrp 1 64 command on both sides of the serial link.
C. Apply the frame-relay voice-bandwidth 64000 command to enable the QoS Call Admission Control feature on the serial link.
D. Apply the max-conn 64 command on a perial peer basis on both sides of the serial link.
Answer: C

23. A Cisco WCS is being used to manage the TestInside wireless network. Which Cisco Wireless Control System (WCS) description is correct?
A. Cisco WCS software is used for WLAN planning, configuration, and management.
B. The Cisco WCS base software provides on-demand location of rogue APs and clients to within 33 feet (10 meters).
C. The three versions of Cisco WCS are WCS Base, WCS Location, and WCS Express.
D. Up to 2,500 APs can be supported from a single Cisco WCS console.
Answer: A

24. As a network technician ,can you tell me which three configuration tasks are required to successfully deploy NBAR to recognize TCP and UDP stateful protocols? (Choose three.)
A. Use the random-detect dscp command to modify the default minimum and maximum thresholds for the DSCP value.
B. Use the service-policy command to attach a traffic flow to an interface on the router.
C. Use the policy-map command to define one or more QoS policies (such as shaping, policing, and so on) to apply to traffic defined by a class map.
D. Use the class-map command to define one or more traffic classes by specifying the criteria by which traffic is classified.
Answer: BCD

25. There are many reasons for network congestion ,what is the most common cause of network congestion?
A. flapping Ethernet interfaces caused by misconfigured LAN interfaces
B. aggregation congestion occurring at the core layer where the different distribution layer devices feed traffic to the core-layer switches
C. speed mismatches when moving from a low-speed LAN environment to a higher speed WAN environment
D. speed mismatches when moving from a high-speed LAN environment to a lower speed WAN environment
Answer: D

26. Which one of the following options shows the correct mapping of 802.11e priority levels to WMM access categories?
A. Voice(Platinum)=6/7, Video(Gold)=4/5, Best-Effort(Silver)=3/2, Background(Bronze)=0/1
B. Voice(Platinum)=6/7, Video(Gold)=4/5, Best-Effort(Silver)=1/2, Background( Bronze)=0/3
C. Voice(Platinum)=6/7, Video(Gold)=4/5, Best-Effort(Silver)=0/3, Background( Bronze)=1/2
D. None of the above
Answer: C

27. The Cisco Autonomous WLAN solution reduces overall operational expenses. What are two components of the Cisco Autonomous WLAN solution? (Choose two.)
A. LWAPP
B. WDS
C. WLC
D. WLSE
Answer: BD

28. WPA is a security technology for wireless networks. What are three security problems with Wi-Fi Protected Access (WPA)? (Choose three.)
A. WPA is based on the outdated IEEE 802.11i standard.
B. WPA is susceptible to a security weakness when preshared keys are used.
C. WPA uses TKIP, which uses the same base encryption algorithm as WEP.
D. WPA is susceptible to a DoS attack when it receives two packets in quick succession with bad MICs, forcing the AP to shut down the entire Basic Service Set (BSS) for one minute.
Answer: BCD

29. You are tasked to install WCS on a management station to monitor the TestInside wireless network. Which two operating systems are supported by Cisco for WCS wireless management installation and operation? (Choose two)
A. Windows XP Professional
B. Red Hat Enterprise Linux ES 3
C. MAC OS X v10.3 or later
D. Windows 2000 Server with SP4 or later
Answer: BD

30. When the QoS-for-VPNs feature (QoS pre-classify) provides packet classification and applies appropriate QoS service on tunnel interfaces , do you know which three characteristics of the traffic flow should be taken into consideration? (Choose three.)
A. IP precedence bits
B. source IP address
C. original port numbers
D. destination IP address
Answer: BCD
Link : http://www.killtest.co.kr/CCNP/642-845.asp

1. Which is a valid PostConstruct method in a message-driven bean class?
A. @PostConstruct
public boolean init() { return true; }
B. @PostConstruct
private static void init() {}
C. @PostConstruct
private void init() {}
D. @PostConstruct
public static void init() {}
Answer: C

2. Given:
11. @Entity public class X {
12.   @Id int id;
13.   Y y;
14. }
A public class Y with NO Java Persistence annotations is defined in the same package.
Which statement is correct about these classes if NO other annotations and mapping descriptors are provided?
A. Class Y must be serializable.
B. Class Y must be marked as an entity.
C. The entity X is not defined correctly.The field y must be marked as @Lob.
D. Class Y must be accessed by a persistence application through a public interface.
Answer: A

3. A developer is working on a user registration application using EJB 3.0.  A business method registerUser in stateless session bean RegistrationBean performs the user registration. The registerUser method executes in a transaction context started by the client.  If some invalid user data causes the registration to fail, the client invokes registerUser again with corrected data using the same transaction. Which design can meet this requirement?
A. Have registerUser method call EJBContext.setRollbackOnly() method after registration fails.
B. Have registerUser method throw javax.ejb.EJBTransactionRequiredException after registration fails.
C. Have registerUser method throw EJBException without marking the transaction for rollback, after registration fails.
D. Create an application exception with the rollback attribute set to false and have registerUser method throw it after registration fails.
Answer: D

4. Which two class types must be implicitly or explicitly denoted in the persistence.xml descriptor as managed persistence classes to be included within a persistence unit? (Choose two.)
A. Entity classes
B. Interceptor classes
C. Embedded classes
D. Entity listener classes
Answer: AC

5. Which statement about the combination of mapping defaults, annotations, and XML descriptors is correct?
A. All mapping annotations must always be processed by the persistence provider.
B. Some annotations, like the @Entity annotation, must always be processed by the persistence provider.
C. The mapping information for an entity class specified by annotations and in XML descriptors must be distinct.
D. If multiple entity listeners are defined, the order in which they are invoked can be defined or overwritten in the XML descriptor.
Answer: D

6. Which statement about an entity instance lifecycle is correct?
A. A new entity instance is an instance with a fully populated state.
B. A detached entity instance is an instance with no persistent identity.
C. A removed entity instance is NOT associated with a persistence context.
D. A managed entity instance is the instance associated with a persistence context.
Answer: D

7. A developer implements a session bean  with a method doStuff which behaves differently depending on the caller’s security role. Only users in security roles “ADMIN” and “USER” are allowed to call the method. Assume that there is no security-related metadata in the deployment descriptor. Which two, taken in combination, are appropriate to accomplish this? (Choose two.)
A. Annotate method doStuff with @PermitAll.
B. Annotate method doStuff with @RolesAllowed({”ADMIN”,”USER”})
C. If EJBContext.getCallerPrincipal returns role “ADMIN”, implement the behavior for users in role ADMIN.
D. If EJBContext.isCallerInRole(”ADMIN”) returns true, implement the behavior defined for users in role “ADMIN”.
Answer: BD

8. A developer wants to create a portable EJB 3.0 application that includes the following class definition for the Entity Account:
11. @Entity
12. @EntityListeners(com.acme.AlertMonitor.class)
13. public class Account {
14.   // more code here
15.   @PrePersist
16.   protected void validateCreate() {/* more code here */}
17. }
Which statement is correct?
A. The validateCreate method may NOT throw runtime exceptions.
B. The validateCreate method can invoke the EntityManager.flush operation.
C. Methods of the class com.acme.AlertMonitor annotated with callback annotations must take an Object or Account instance as the only argument.
D. The above class definition is NOT correct. An entity cannot define a callback method like PrePersist and use the EntityListeners annotation at the same time.
Answer: C

9. Given:
11. @PersistenceContext EntityManager em;
12. public boolean test(Order o) {
13.   boolean b = false;
14.   o = em.merge(o);
15    em.remove(o);
16.   o = em.merge(o);
17.   b = em.contains(o);
18.   return b;
19. }
Which statement is correct?
A. The method will return TRUE.
B. The method will return FALSE.
C. The method will throw an exception.
D. The Order instance will be removed from the database.
Answer: C

10. The deployment descriptor for a stateless session bean that uses the isCallerInRole method reads as follows:
3. <security-role-ref>
4.    <role-name>manager</role-name>
5.    <role-link>humanresources</role-link>
6. <security-role-ref>
16. <security-role>
17.   <description>
18.     Is allowed to view and update all employee records.
19.   </description>
20.   <role-name>humanresources</role-name>
21. </security-role>
Which two roles are responsible for creating this deployment descriptor? (Choose two.)
A. Deployer
B. Bean Provider
C. System Administrator
D. Application Assembler
Answer: BD

11. Given two entities with a many-to-many bidirectional association between them:
11. @Entity public class Employee {
12.   Collection projects;
13.   // more code here
14. }
and
11. @Entity public class Project{
12.   Set<Employee> emps;
13.   // more code here
14. }
What set of annotations correctly defines the association?
A. @ManyToMany on the projects field,
@ManyToMany(mappedBy=”projects”) on the emps field
B. @ManyToMany(mappedBy=”emps”) on the projects field,
@ManyToMany on the emps field
C. @ManyToMany(targetEntity=Project.class) on the projects field,
@ManyToMany(mappedBy=”projects”) on the emps field
D. @ManyToMany(targetEntity=Project.class) on the projects field,
@ManyToMany on the emps field
Answer: C

12. Given code snippets from two files:
7.  public class Dog {
8.    public void onMessage(Message m) { System.out.print(”1 “); }
9.  }
and
10.  @MessageDriven
11.  class MessageDog extends Dog implements MessageDrivenBean {
12.    MessageDog(Message m) { System.out.print(”2 “); }
13.  }
Which four code changes, when used together, create a valid JMS message-driven bean? (Choose four.)
A. Make class MessageDog public.
B. Make the MessageDog constructor no-arg.
C. Make the MessageDog constructor public.
D. Move the onMessage method to class MessageDog.
E. Change MessageDog so that it is NOT a subclass of Dog.
F. Make class MessageDog implement MessageListener instead of MessageDrivenBean.
Answer: ABCF

13. Which statement about entity manager is true?
A. A container-managed entity manager must be a JTA entity manager.
B. An entity manager injected into session beans can use either JTA or resource-local transaction control.
C. An entity manager created by calling the EntityManagerFactory.createEntityManager method always uses JTA transaction control.
D. An entity manager obtained through resource injection in a stateful session bean can use a resource-local EntityTransaction for transaction control.
Answer: A

14. Which two options can be used to predefine Java Persistence queries for easy use? (Choose two.)
A. @NamedQuery annotation
B. @NamedNativeQuery annotation
C. using the named-query element in the XML descriptor
D. using the named-native-query element in the XML descriptor
Answer: AC

15. Given a set of CMT bean methods with the following transaction attributes:
Method M1=SUPPORTS
Method M2=REQUIRED
Method M3=NOT_SUPPORTED
Method M4=REQUIRES_NEW
And the following method invocation sequence:

Method M1 invokes Method M2
Method M2 invokes Method M3
Method M1 invokes Method M4
If Method M1 is invoked by a method that does NOT have a transaction context, which describes a possible scenario?
A. Method M1: no transaction
Method M2: new transaction
Method M3: no transaction
Method M4: new transaction
B. Method M1: no transaction
Method M2: Container throws EJBTransactionRequiredException
C. Method M1: new transaction
Method M2: runs in same transaction as M1
Method M3: Container throws TransactionNotSupportedException
D. Method M1: no transaction
Method M2: new transaction
Method M3: Container throws TransactionNotSupportedException
Answer: A

16. A developer wants to create a Java Persistence query that returns valid U.S. phone numbers (formatted as  “123-456-7890″ or “800-RUN-EJB3″) from a collection of differently formatted international phone numbers. The developer needs only those numbers that begin with 303. Which WHERE clause is correct?
A. WHERE addr.phone LIKE ‘303_’
B. WHERE addr.phone LIKE ‘303%’
C. WHERE addr.phone LIKE ‘303-_-_’
D. WHERE addr.phone LIKE ‘303-%-%’
E. WHERE addr.phone LIKE ‘303-___-____’
F. WHERE addr.phone LIKE ‘303-%%%-%%%%’
Answer: E

17. A developer is working on a project that includes both EJB 2.1 and EJB 3.0 session beans.  A lot of business logic has been implemented and tested in these EJB 2.1 session beans.  Some EJB 3.0 session beans need to access this business logic.
Which design approach can achieve this requirement?
A. Add adapted home interfaces to EJB 3.0 session beans to make EJB 3.0 and EJB 2.1 session beans interoperable.
B. Add EJB 3.0 business interfaces to existing EJB 2.1 session beans and inject references to these business interfaces into EJB 3.0 session beans.
C. No need to modify existing EJB 2.1 session beans. Use the @EJB annotation to inject a reference to the EJB 2.1 home interface into the EJB 3.0 bean class.
D. No need to modify existing EJB 2.1 session beans. Use the @EJB annotation to inject a reference to the EJB 2.1 component interface into the EJB 3.0 bean class.
Answer: C

18. A developer is modifying an existing Java EE application that uses the JDBC API to access a database. This code must be used but cannot be changed, and new code needs to be added that uses the Java Persistence API.
Both parts of the code will execute in the same JTA transaction.
Which method of the EntityManager interface should the new code use to ensure that the data read by JDBC statements includes the state of managed entities?
A. Call refresh on each changed entity.
B. Call flush at the end of each business method.
C. Call find before accessing any managed entity.
D. Call lock at the beginning of each business method.
Answer: B

19. A developer wants to achieve the following two behaviors for an EJB 3.0 session bean:
(1) If the client calls a business method with a transaction context, the container will invoke the enterprise bean’s method in the client’s transaction context.
(2) If the client calls a business method without a transaction context, the container will throw the javax.ejb.EJBTransactionRequiredException.
Which transaction attribute should be used?
A. REQUIRED
B. SUPPORTS
C. MANDATORY
D. REQUIRES_NEW
E. NOT_SUPPORTED
Answer: C

20. Given a stateless session bean with container-managed transaction demarcation, from which two methods can a developer access another enterprise bean? (Choose two.)
A. bean constructor
B. Timeout callback method
C. PreDestroy lifecycle callback method
D. PostConstruct lifecycle callback method
E. business method from the business interface
Answer: BE

21. Which two are programming restrictions in the EJB 3.0 specification? (Choose two.)
A. An enterprise bean must NOT attempt to load a native library.
B. An enterprise bean must NOT declare static fields as final.
C. An enterprise bean must NOT attempt to create a new security manager.
D. An enterprise bean must NOT propagate a RuntimeException to the container.
E. An enterprise bean must NOT attempt to obtain a javax.naming.InitialContext.
Answer: AC

22. The Java Persistence API defines a notion of propagation of a persistence context. Which statement is correct?
A. Persistence context propagation is NOT supported for message-driven beans.
B. Persistence context propagation is supported for any type of an entity manager.
C. Persistence context propagation avoids the need for the application to pass references of entity manager instances.
D. Persistence context propagation results in cloning of all managed instances for use by another instance of an entity manager.
Answer: C
23. Given the following statements about an EJB deployment descriptor for which the metadata-complete attribute is not specified:
I.   The EJB deployment descriptor can provide additional metadata to bean class annotations.
II.  The EJB deployment descriptor can partially override bean class annotations.
III. The EJB deployment descriptor can entirely override bean class annotations. 
Which is true?
A. Only statement I is correct.
B. Only statement II is correct.
C. Only statement III is correct.
D. Both statements I and II are correct.
E. Both statements I and III are correct.
Answer: D

24. Which Java Persistence query uses the aggregate function correctly, assuming that chairs field is of type int?
A. SELECT ANY(r.chairs) FROM Room r
B. SELECT NEW Integer(MAX(r.chairs)) FROM Room r
C. SELECT r FROM Room r WHERE r.chairs > AVG(r.chairs)
D. SELECT c FROM Chair c WHERE LOCATE (c.type, ‘lazyboy’) > -1
Answer: B

25. A business method of a stateless session bean with a transaction attribute REQUIRED executes a Java Persistence query on a container-managed persistence context.
Under which two conditions can the developer expect the persistence provider to ensure that all changes made to the persistence context in the transaction are visible to the processing of the query? (Choose two.)
A. The flush mode is NOT explicitly set.
B. The flush mode on the Query object is set to COMMIT.
C. The refresh method on the EntityManager is called.
D. The flush mode on the persistence context is set to AUTO but is NOT specified for the Query object.
Answer: AD

26. A session bean calls the setRollbackOnly method on the EJBContext interface within a business method with  an active transaction. Which two are correct?  (Choose two.)
A. The transaction timeout is immediately disabled.
B. The container will ensure that the transaction will never commit.
C. The bean must have started the current transaction for this to be legal.
D. The bean must have bean-managed transaction demarcation for this to be legal.
E. The bean must have container-managed transaction demarcation for this to be legal.
Answer: BE

27. Given:
5.   public interface MrB1 {
6.   public interface MrB2 {
A java class is defined as:
11. @Stateless
12. public class MrBean implements MrB1,MrB2 {
Which two statements are correct for making this code work as a stateless session bean, considering that this session bean is NOT defined in a deployment descriptor and the interfaces do NOT have annotations? (Choose two.)
A. Only the inteface for remote usage must be annotated.
B. The interfaces MrB1 and MrB2 can only be used locally without changing the code.
C. Both interfaces MrB1 and MrB2 must be annotated to make this a working stateless session bean.
D. The interfaces MrB1 and MrB2 can be annotated differently, one with @Local and the other with @Remote.
Answer: CD

28. A developer wants to write a stateful session bean using the following interface as local business interface:
1.  package acme;
2.  public interface Bar {
3.    public void bar();
4.  }
Assuming there is NOT an ejb-jar.xml file, which code can be inserted into Lines 4-6 below to define the bean with the ejb name of BarBean?

1.  package acme;
2.  import javax.ejb.*;
3.  import java.io.*;
4.
5.
6.
7.  }
A. @Stateful
public class BarEJB implements Bar {
public void bar() {}
B. @Stateful(name=”Bar”)
public class BarBean implements Bar {
public void bar() {}
C. @Stateful
public class BarBean implements Serializable, Bar {
public void bar() {}
D. @Stateful(name=”Bar”)
public class BarBean implements Bar {
public void bar() throws java.rmi.RemoteException {}
Answer: C

29. Given the following client-side code that makes use of the session bean Foo:
10. @EJB Foo bean1;
11. @EJB Foo bean2;
         //more code here
20. boolean test1 = bean1.equals(bean1);
21. boolean test2 = bean1.equals(bean2);
Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. If Foo is stateful, test1 is true, and test2 is true.
B. If Foo is stateful, test1 is true, and test2 is false.
C. If Foo is stateless, test1 is true, and test2 is true.
D. If Foo is stateful, test1 is false, and test2 is false.
E. If Foo is stateless, test1 is true, and test2 is false.
F. If Foo is stateless, test1 is false, and test2 is false.
Answer: BC

30. A developer writes an interceptor class called FooInterceptor containing the following AroundInvoke method:
11. @AroundInvoke
12. public Object intercept(InvocationContext ctx) {
13.   return “intercepted”;
14. }
FooInterceptor is applied to a business method in a stateless session bean:
11. @Interceptors(FooInterceptor.class)
12. public String testzero(int i) {
13.   return (i == 0) ? “zero” : “not zero”;
14. }

Which describes the result when a client invokes the testzero method with a value of 1?
A. The intercept method is NEVER invoked.
B. The client receives a return value of “zero”.
C. The client receives a return value of “not zero”.
D. The client receives a return value of “intercepted”.
Answer: D
Link : http://www.killtest.co.kr/SUNOtherCertifications/310-091.asp

1. You are preparing for a new installation of SQL Server 2005. You need to select the protocols that client computers might use to connect to the server. Which two protocols can you use to achieve this goal? (Each correct answer presents a complete solution. Choose two.)
A. Named Pipes
B. TCP/IP
C. Shared Memory
D. Virtual Interface Adapter (VIA)
E. Multiprotocol
Answer: AB

2. Application developers in your company create an assembly that contains a CLR function. This CLR function reads data from a spreadsheet, performs some calculations, and returns the data to a SQL Server 2005 computer. You need to register the assembly with SQL Server 2005 by using the CREATE ASSEMBLY statement and the least privileged security permission set. Which permission set should you use?
A. Default
B. SAFE
C. EXTERNAL_ACCESS
D. UNSAFE
Answer: C

3. Your company has two SQL Server 2005 computers named SQL1 and SQL2. A user in your company named Eric writes many ad hoc queries against the company databases. Eric has access to the Customer database on SQL1. He does not have access to the Sales database on SQL2. You need to ensure that Eric can write queries that join information from both servers. What should you do first?
A. Create a linked server on SQL1 to SQL2. Configure the linked server to use impersonation.
B. Create a linked server on SQL1 to SQL2. Configure the linked server to use mapped logins.
C. Instruct Eric to write the queries on SQL2 by using the OPENQUERY statement and specifying SQL1 as the server name.
D. Instruct Eric to specify SQL Server object names by using four-part notation.
Answer: B

4. You configure a new SQL Server 2005 computer to use TCP/IP with all default settings. Your corporate policy requires that each server use a firewall. You find that you can connect to the SQL Server instance from the local computer. However, client computers cannot connect to the SQL Server instance. You need to identify the most likely cause of the connection issues. What should you do first?
A. Ensure that port 1433 is open in your firewall.
B. Ensure that port 443 is open in your firewall.
C. Ensure that client computers connect by using Shared Memory protocol.
D. Ensure that the server is not paused.
Answer: A

5. You are moving a SQL Server 2005 database named Timesheet to a new database server. The Timesheet database is used by the TimeEntry application.  You need to minimize the amount of time that the TimeEntry application is unavailable while you move the database. What should you do?
A. Move the database to the new server by using the SQL Management Object method in the Copy Database Wizard.
B. Detach the current database. Copy the data files to the new server. Attach the files.
C. Back up the database. Copy the backup file to the new server. Restore the database.
D. Move the data files. Specify the new location by using ALTER DATABASE.
Answer: B

6. A support engineer reports that inserting new sales transactions in a SQL Server 2005 database results in an error. You investigate the error. You discover that in one of the databases, a developer has accidentally deleted some data in a table that is critical for transaction processing. The database uses the full recovery model. You need to restore the table. You need to achieve this goal without affecting the availability of other data in the database. What should you do?
A. Back up the current transaction log. Restore the database with a different name and stop at the point just before the data loss. Copy the table back into the original database.
B. Back up the current transaction log. Restore the database to the point just before the data loss.
C. Restore the database from the existing backup files to a time just before the data loss.
D. Restore the database to the point of the last full backup.
Answer: A

7. Your company uses SQL Server 2005. Users report that report execution is slow. You investigate and discover that some queries do not use optimal execution plans. You also notice that some optimizer statistics are missing and others are out of date. You need to correct the problem so that reports execute more quickly. Which two Transact-SQL statements should you use? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)
A. DBCC CHECKTABLE
B. ALTER INDEX REORGANIZE
C. UPDATE STATISTICS
D. CREATE STATISTICS
E. DBCC SHOW_STATISTICS
F. DBCC UPDATEUSAGE
Answer: CD

8. You are responsible for implementing maintenance jobs on a SQL Server 2005 database server. Certain jobs run every Sunday and other jobs run at the beginning of every month.  You need to schedule the jobs in the way that uses the least amount of administrative effort.  What should you do?
A. Create a job schedule that runs every Sunday. Assign weekly tasks to this schedule. Create a second schedule that runs on the first day of every month. Assign monthly tasks to this schedule.
B. Create a job for each task that runs once a day. Use a Transact-SQL statement to check the date and day of the week. If the day is either a Sunday or the first day of the month, execute the code.
C. Create a job schedule that runs once a day. Assign jobs to this job schedule. If the day is either a Sunday or the first day of the month, execute the jobs.
D. Create a job for each task that runs once a week on Sunday. Add a second job schedule that runs the job on the first of the month.
Answer: A

9. You are responsible for managing the database schema for an order entry application in a SQL Server 2005 database. After a design review, a member of the development staff asks you to add a new column named CommissionRate to the Product table. Because the actual commission rates for all products are not known at this time, each product has a default commission rate of 12 percent. The rate can be modified as necessary. You add the new column. You need to configure the table to assign the default value as efficiently as possible. What should you do?
A. Create an INSERT trigger to assign the default value to each item in the table.
B. Create a CHECK constraint to validate the data and to assign the default value to each item in the table.
C. Create an UPDATE trigger to update the default value for each new item in the table.
D. Create a DEFAULT constraint to assign the default value specifying the WITH VALUES argument.
Answer: D

10. Your company Web site includes a page that customers use to send feedback about the company and its products. You use a SQL Server 2005 database to store the comments in the Comments column of a table named Feedback. You need to implement full-text searching so that you can run reports on the comments. Which two actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)
A. Create a nonclustered index on the Comments column.
B. Execute the USE Master Transact-SQL statement.
C. Create a full-text catalog.
D. Create a full-text index on the Comments column.
Answer: CD

11. You are creating a SQL Server 2005 database for a mortgage company. The database will support a new Web-based application that will handle up to 1,000 simultaneous users. This application must quickly display the results of calculation-intensive operations, such as calculating mortgage payments and amortization schedules. You need to ensure that the database processes calculations as quickly and efficiently as possible. What should you do?
A. Implement parameterized Transact-SQL queries in the application.
B. Implement Transact-SQL stored procedures in the database.
C. Implement CLR stored procedures in the database.
D. Implement distributed Web services.
Answer: C

12. Your company uses a SQL Server 2005 database. This database contains a trigger named trg_InsertOrders, which fires when order data is inserted into the Orders table. The trigger is responsible for ensuring that a customer exists in the Customers table before data is inserted into the Orders table. You need to configure the trigger to prevent it from firing during the data import process. You must accomplish this goal while using the least amount of administrative effort. Which two Transact-SQL statements can you use to achieve this goal? (Each correct answer presents a complete solution. Choose two.)
A. ALTER TABLE OrdersDISABLE TRIGGER trg_InsertOrders
B. DROP TRIGGER trg_InsertOrders
C. DISABLE TRIGGER trg_InsertOrders ON Orders
D. ALTER TRIGGER trg_InsertOrders  ON Orders NOT FOR REPLICATION
E. sp_settriggerorder@triggername= ‘trg_InsertOrders’, @order=’None’
Answer: AC

13. You work with a SQL Server 2005 database that provides banking information for customers. You want customers to see banking reports that combine data that is retrieved from the database with real-time investment information that comes from a Web service provided by a third party. The investment information must be current when the reports are executed. You need to create the appropriate objects that support the reports. What should you do?
A. Publish the data in the database as an XML Web service by using the FOR XML AUTO clause.
B. Create a table to store the banking information for each customer. Create a trigger that fires when data is inserted into the table that joins with the data coming from the Web service.
C. Create a Transact-SQL stored procedure that uses a temporary table to store the banking information for each customer. Update the table with the values from the Web service.
D. Have a developer in your company create an assembly that calls the remote Web service. Create a CLR function by using the assembly. Call the CLR function and combine the results with banking information in the database.
Answer: D

14. Your company uses SQL Server 2005. You are implementing a series of views that are used in ad hoc queries. The views are used to enforce your companys security policy of abstracting data.  Some of these views perform slowly. You create indexes on those views to increase performance, while still maintaining the companys security policy. One of the views returns the current date as one of the columns. The view returns the current date by using the GETDATE() function. This view does not allow you to create an index. You need to create an index on the view. Which two actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)
A. Remove all deterministic function calls from within the view.
B. Remove all nondeterministic function calls from within the view.
C. Schema-bind all functions that are called from within the view.
D. Create the view and specify the WITH CHECK OPTION clause.
Answer: BC

15. Your data warehouse includes three separate SQL Server 2005 tables for storing customer data. Each table is used to horizontally partition data that is migrated from a SQL Server 2000 installation to SQL Server 2005. Data is partitioned as shown in the following table.
 
Table nameStores customer surnamebeginning with letterCustomer1A C HCustomer2I C PCustomer3Q C Z The database does not allow customers to opt-out of e-mail marketing offers.
You need to add a new OptOutFlag column to each of the customer tables. You must ensure that this column is added to either all three customer tables or none of them. You must also ensure that the database is always in a consistent state.
Which Transact-SQL batch should you use?
A. BEGIN TRAN  
  ALTER TABLE CUSTOMER1
  ADD OptOutFlag BIT NULL
  ALTER TABLE CUSTOMER2
  ADD OptOutFlag BIT NULL
   ALTER TABLE CUSTOMER3
  ADD OptOutFlag BIT NULL
IF @@error <> 0
ROLLBACK TRAN
ELSE
COMMIT TRAN
B. BEGIN TRAN
  BEGIN TRY
    ALTER TABLE CUSTOMER1
    ADD OptOutFlag BIT NULL
     ALTER TABLE CUSTOMER2
    ADD OptOutFlag BIT NULL
     ALTER TABLE CUSTOMER3
    ADD OptOutFlag BIT NULL
   END TRY
   BEGIN CATCH
    ROLLBACK TRAN
    RETURN
  END CATCH
 COMMIT TRAN
C. ALTER TABLE CUSTOMER1
ADD OptOutFlag BIT NULL
ALTER TABLE CUSTOMER2
ADD OptOutFlag BIT NULL
ALTER TABLE CUSTOMER3
ADD OptOutFlag BIT NULL
D. BEGIN TRAN
   ALTER TABLE CUSTOMER1
  ADD OptOutFlag BIT NULL
   ALTER TABLE CUSTOMER2
  ADD OptOutFlag BIT NULL
   ALTER TABLE CUSTOMER3
  ADD OptOutFlag BIT NULL
COMMIT TRAN
Answer: B

16. You are creating a view to join the Customers and Orders tables in a SQL Server 2005 database. You need to ensure that the view cannot be affected by modifications to underlying table schemas. You want to accomplish this goal by using the least possible amount of overhead. What should you do?
A. Create CHECK constraints on the tables.
B. Create a DDL trigger to roll back any changes to the tables if the changes affect the columns in the view.
C. Create the view, specifying the WITH SCHEMABINDING option.
D. Create the view, specifying the WITH CHECK option.
Answer: C

17. Your company uses a SQL Server 2005 database. Customer data from your trading partners is imported into the Customers table every night. You need to ensure that the customer record is updated if it already exists in the Customers table. If the record does not exist, the data needs to be inserted into the Customers table. What should you do?
A. Create a FOR trigger.
B. Create an INSTEAD OF trigger.
C. Create an AFTER trigger.
D. Create a DDL trigger.
Answer: B

18. Your company uses a mission-critical database named DB1, which is located on a server named SQL1. You want to mirror DB1 on a second server named SQL2. Before you can establish database mirroring, you need to prepare DB1 and the servers for mirroring. Which three actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose three.)
A. Set the recovery model of DB1 on SQL1 to bulk-logged recovery.
B. Set the recovery model of DB1 on SQL1 to full recovery.
C. Back up DB1 on SQL1. Restore the backup on SQL2; specify the NORECOVERY option.
D. Back up DB1 on SQL1. Restore the backup on SQL2; specify the STANDBY option.
E. Back up DB1 on SQL1. Restore the backup on SQL2; specify the RECOVERY option.
F. Create endpoints on all participating servers.
G. Set the AutoShrink property of DB1 on SQL1 to false.
Answer: BCF

19. A full backup of your database named DB1 is created automatically at midnight every day. Differential backups of DB1 occur twice each day at 10:00 and at 16:00. A database snapshot is created every day at noon. A developer reports that he accidentally dropped the Pricelist table in DB1 at 12:30. The last update to Pricelist occurred one week ago. You need to recover the Pricelist table. You want to achieve this goal by using the minimum amount of administrative effort. You must also minimize the amount of data that is lost. What should you do?
A. Restore the most recent backup into a new database named DB1bak. Apply the most recent differential backup. Copy the Pricelist table from DB1bak to DB1.
B. Delete all database snapshots except the most recent one. Restore DB1 from the most recent database snapshot.
C. Recover DB1 from the most recent backup. Apply the most recent differential backup.
D. Copy the Pricelist table from the most recent database snapshot into DB1.
Answer: D

20. Your company has two SQL Server 2005 computers named SQL1 and SQL2. Transaction log shipping occurs from SQL1 to SQL2 by using default SQL Server Agent schedule settings. You need to reconfigure transaction log shipping to provide minimum latency on SQL2. What should you do?
A. On SQL1, reschedule the transaction log backup job so that it occurs every minute. On SQL2, maintain default schedule settings for both the log shipping copy and the restore jobs.
B. On SQL1, change the schedule type for the transaction log backup to Start automatically when SQL Server Agent starts. On SQL2, change the schedule types for both the log shipping copy and the restore jobs to Start automatically when SQL Server Agent starts.
C. On SQL1, maintain default schedule settings for the transaction log backup job. On SQL2, change the schedule types for both the log shipping copy and the restore jobs to Start automatically when SQL Server Agent starts.
D. On SQL1, reschedule the transaction log backup job so that it occurs every minute. On SQL2, reschedule both the log shipping copy and the restore jobs so that they occur every minute.
Answer: D
Link : http://www.killtest.co.kr/MCITP/70-431.asp

1. Which of the following properly describes the 4-port Ethernet PCI adapter card used in IBM Power Systems servers?
A. A single physical connection with four virtual MAC addresses
B. The four Ethernet connections on the card share a common PCI bus.
C. A single connection provides the virtual bandwidth of four Ethernet cards
D. Four separate LPARs can each use a port on the 4-port Ethernet PCI adapter card.
Answer: B

2. A customer with several older pSeries servers plans to consolidate to a single Power Systems server. Which of the following tools can provide output that can be merged with Work Load Estimator to size the upgrade based on utilization and growth trends?
A. Insight Manager
B. System Planning Tool
C. Tivoli Capacity Planner
D. Electronic Service Agent
Answer: B

3. A distribution company is running Oracle 9i and Solaris 8 on a Sun E10K. The prospect wants to upgrade their technology and lower their TCO. Which of the following is the first thing the sales representative should do to move them to a POWER6 solution?
A. Conduct an Oracle SAR.
B. Offer a proof of concept system
C. Engage the IBM Migration Factory team.
D. Determine if funding and skills are available.
Answer: D

4. A Power Systems sales representative has a meeting with the CIO of a telecommunications company. They have twenty POWER4 systems now. They have ample budget for the new POWER6 systems. They want to move very quickly into virtualization and are anxious to order additional servers. The customer must be in production within 90 days. Which of the following is the key challenge for this opportunity?
A. Adequate funding
B. Business problem
C. Project management
D. Software requirements
Answer: C

5. A Power Systems sales representative has a meeting with the I/S Director of a large company with twenty HP Superdomes systems. They plan to move their applications to IBM POWER6 servers and have ample budget. Which of the following is key for the sales representative to identify?
A. Space requirements
B. Software requirements
C. POWER6 energy requirements
D. Project timing requirements
Answer: B

6. A Power Systems sales representative has had several meetings with the CIO of a large company. They have a mixture of SUN and IBM servers now. The CEO has a long term relationship with the SUN representative. They have ample budget to refresh all the systems. Which of the following is key for the sales representative to identify?
A. Business problem
B. Software requirements
C. Decision-maker and process
D. Project timing requirements
Answer: C

7. A customer requires the maximum memory per processor on a Power Blade that supports partition mobility. Which Blade server meets these requirements?
A. JS12
B. JS20
C. JS21
D. JS22
Answer: A

8. A customer plans to consolidate several web applications whose workloads change frequently. Upper management is very concerned about data security between applications but is very cost conscious. Which of the following will best meet their requirements?
A. IVM
B. VIOS
C. DLPAR
D. Partition Mobility
Answer: C

9. A customer is concerned that if several systems are consolidated on a single Power Systems server, the administration costs will not go down. Which virtualization feature should be discussed to minimize this concern?
A. Virtual LAN (VLAN)
B. Virtual I/O Server (VIOS)
C. Dynamic Logical Partition (DLPAR)
D. Simultaneous Multi-threading (SMT)
Answer: C

10. A POWER6 server customer plans to implement 2 micro partitions (one Linux, one AIX) to be managed by an existing HMC on a 520 server. Which of the following is the minimum version of PowerVM Editions to meet this need?
A. Entry
B. Express
C. Standard
D. Enterprise
Answer: C

11. A POWER6 server customer plans to implement a four core Blade server with three logical partitions to separate three critical applications. Which of the following meets these needs?
A. JS22 and PowerVM Express Edition
B. JS12 and PowerVM Express Edition
C. JS12 and PowerVM Standard Edition
D. JS22 and PowerVM Standard Edition
Answer: D

12. A Power Systems customer must now combine several systems into one system with minimal cost outlay due to budget cuts. The customer wants to purchase an entry level System p server with three partitions. Which IBM capability will be needed to accomplish this consolidation for the least cost?
A. APV with IVM
B. APV with an HMC
C. DLPAR using internal disks for hardware isolation
D. DLPAR using two I/O drawers for partition isolation
Answer: A

13. A large company has several underutilized servers and is considering options to consolidate. This business has many large database severs, application servers, and a test and development environment. Which of the following directly impacts the financial justification for this plan?
A. Reduce test and development time
B. Improved support for user groups
C. Reduction in software licensing costs
D. Increased performance of server workloads
Answer: C

14. A company going through business recovery is refreshing non-IBM servers. What is the most complete selling point to replace the existing servers with the new generation of Power Systems servers?
A. Virtualization features
B. Industry leading performance
C. Improved total cost of ownership
D. Ability to run multiple operating systems
Answer: C

15. A local Power Systems server customer requires 24 x 7 availability for one mission critical web application. They have two servers in a single location. Which of the following features support this project?
A. HACMP
B. PowerVM Lx86
C. PowerVM Application Mobility
D. PowerVM Live Partition Mobility
Answer: A

16. A local Power Systems server prospect requires four logical partitions (two Linux , one AIX, and one IBM i). They only plan for a single Blade with four cores. Which of the following technically describes the required configuration?
A. JS12 with PowerVM Express
B. JS22 with PowerVM Express
C. JS12 with PowerVM Standard
D. JS22 with PowerVM Standard
Answer: D

17. A large financial services company would like to have a disaster recovery system for their production environment that handles daily processing. What type of server solution should be discussed to accomplish these objectives?
A. FlashCopy
B. Partition Mobility
C. CBU (Capacity BackUp)
D. Application Mobility in WPARs
Answer: C

18. The IBM BladeCenter JS22 blade server offers significant improvements in performance and reliability over the previous generation JS21 blade server. Which chip is used to provide three times the performance over the JS21 blade?
A. IBM POWER6 Dual Core
B. IBM POWER5+ Dual Core
C. IBM POWER5+ Quad Core
D. IBM PowerPC 970MP Dual Core
Answer: A

19. A customer has three JS22 Express Blades. They plan to try virtualization but are concerned about the cost. Which of the following describes the cost?
A. PowerVM Enterprise Edition allows a 90 day trial free of charge.
B. They require a minimum SWMA contract for PowerVM Standard Edition.
C. They can implement PowerVM for a monthly per core charge plus SWMA.
D. PowerVM Express Edition is a no charge feature and allows up to three logical partitions.
Answer: B
20. A customer asks the sales representative to describe Live Partition Mobility. The customer has an install base of several POWER6 servers. Which of the following describes that feature?
A. Live Partition Mobility allows moving a running partition to a second server without downtime.
B. Live Partition Mobility allows movement of a partition between a failed server to a new target server.
C. Live Partition Mobility allows moving partitions between machines and requires a restart of the target server.
D. Live Partition Mobility allows any running application to move to a server not on the same SAN without downtime.
Answer: A

21. A manufacturer has been considering the HP Superdome and the Power 570. The HP rep claims the Superdome has all the same RAS capabilities as the IBM system. Which RAS capability should the IBM rep discuss to refute HP’s claim?
A. Chipkill Memory
B. CPU Deallocation
C. Automatic PCI bus retry
D. First Failure Data Capture
Answer: D

22. A prospective customer is concerned about investment protection of their servers. Which of the following is a key aspect of this concern?
A. Binary compatibility between servers
B. Hot pluggable processor and memory boards
C. Consistent CoD features with entire family
D. Ability to interchange features between systems
Answer: A

23. A customer wants to purchase a new Power Systems p 570 system for a new infrastructure application which requires 24×7 availability. What RAS feature will be helpful to highlight during the initial meeting with the customer?
A. APV activation
B. DDR2 memory DIMMs
C. Hot swappable processors
D. Dynamic processor deallocation
Answer: D

24. A Sun customer has recently experienced several critical processor failures. When replacing the processors, the customer was not able to recreate the problem. This has prompted a call to their local Power Systems representative. Which of the following Power Systems RAS features should the representative emphasize during the sales call?
A. APV
B. Service Processor
C. Lightpath Diagnostics
D. First Failure Data Capture
Answer: D

25. A competitive customer frequently misses deadlines while provisioning new servers. Which of the following is a major business value of using PowerVM for provisioning on Power Systems servers?
A. Improves backup and recovery time
B. Improves application response time
C. Reduces the total resources required
D. Reduces time and cost of implementation
Answer: D

26. A retail company wants to virtualize their web infrastructure onto a single server with a redundant server as backup. They are investigating two Power Systems servers versus two Sun servers. Which of the following is supported with APV and not with VMware?
A. Mobile partitions
B. Virtual I/O devices
C. Ten partitions per processor
D. Dynamic movement of processors
Answer: C

27. A retailer selling books on the internet is considering a Power System server running AIX or a Dell Xeon Windows server. Which of the following characteristics favors AIX?
A. The AIX solution has a built in firewall.
B. The AIX solution can share the boot devices.
C. The AIX solution provides a more secure environment from hackers.
D. The AIX solution provides higher performance due to processor speeds.
Answer: C

28. A Sun customer with numerous large Oracle database servers tells the Power Systems sales person that Sun’s “CoolThreads” technology is a key differentiator, and that IBM does not offer comparable technology. Which of the following would be the best response to address this statement?
A. Sun application code has to be re-compiled to support CoolThreads.
B. IBM Active Energy Manager enables customers to manage energy consumption.
C. CoolThreads does not use L2 cache, whereas POWER uses a large L2 and L3 cache.
D. Simultaneous Multi-Threading (SMT), which also provides the capability to execute four threads per core.
Answer: B

29. A prospect is looking at new servers from multiple vendors, and the IT manager has become very confused about processor terminology. How does IBM describe the relationship between core, socket, and processor?
A. Cores and processors are identical
B. Sockets and processors are identical
C. PowerVM makes a socket appear as a processor
D. Multiple cores are included in a single processor
Answer: A

30. A prospect is confused by HP claims of superior network speed with ServerNet. Which of the following is the rate of throughput for Gb Ethernet?
A. 1 gigabit per minute
B. 1 gigabyte per minute
C. 1000 megabits per second
D. 1000 megabytes per second
Answer: C

Link : http://www.killtest.co.kr/IBMcertificationsII/000-331.asp