최신 덤프

1. Refer to the exhibit. EIGRP is configured on all routers in the network. On the basis of the output
provided, which statement is true?
A. Because the key chain names do not match, router R1 will not be able to ping routers R2 and R3 .
B. Because the key strings do not match, router R1 will not be able to ping routers R2 and R3.
C. Because authentication is misconfigured on interfaces Gi0/0 and Gi0/1 on router R2, router R1 will not
be able to ping routers R2 and R3.
D. Because autosummarization needs to be turned on for EIGRP on all routers, router R1 will not be
able to ping routers R2 and R3.
E. Router R1 will be able to ping routers R2 and R3.
Answer: E
2. The switches shown in the diagram, Core and Core2, are both Catalyst 2950s. The addressing scheme
for each company site is as follows:
Router Ethernet port - 1st usable address
Core - 2nd usable address
Core2 - 3rd usable address
For this network, which of the following commands must be configured on Core2 toallow it to be managed remotely
from any subnet on the network? (Choose three.)
A. Core2(config)# interface f0/0
Core2(config-if)# ip address 192.168.1.10 255.255.255.248
B. Core2(config)# interface vlan 1
Core2(config-if)# ip address 192.168.1.11 255.255.255.248
C. Core2(config)# line con 0
Core2(config-line)# password cisco
D. Core2(config)# line vty 0 4
Core2(config-line)# password cisco
E. Core2(config)# ip default-gateway 192.168.1.9
F. Core2(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.1.8
Answer: BDE
3.Which statement is true about IPv6?
A. Only one IPv6 address is assigned per node.
B. Only one IPv6 address can be assigned to each interface.
C. Each host can autoconfigure its address without the aid of a DHCP server.
D. IPv6 hosts use anycast addresses to assign IP addresses to interfaces.
Answer: C
4. Which two features or capabilities are valid options for both an Autonomous and a Lightweight WLAN
solution? (Choose two)
A. use of a Cisco Wireless Location Appliance for location tracking
B. use of Cisco Secure Access Control Server (ACS) for security
C. Cisco Wireless Control System (WCS) for management
D. PoE capability
Answer: BD
5. Which three statements are true about EIGRP route summarization? (Choose three.)
A. Manual route summarization is configured in router configuration mode when the router is configured
for EIGRP routing.
B. Manual route summarization is configured on the interface.
C. When manual summarization is configured, the summary route will use the metric of the largest
specific metric of the summary routes.
D. The ip summary-address eigrp command generates a default route with an administrative distance of
90.
E. The ip summary-address eigrp command generates a default route with an administrative distance of
F. When manual summarization is configured, the router immediately creates a route that points to null0
interface.
Answer: BEF
5. Which two statements about the IS-IS routing protocol are true? (Choose two.)
A. IS-IS is capable of supporting IPv4 and IPv6.
B. IS-IS is only capable of supporting IPv4 and CLNS.
C. IS-IS routers use ES-IS hellos (ESH) to establish and to maintain neighbor relationships.
D. IS-IS routers run the Bellman-Ford algorithm against their LSDBs to pick the best paths.
E. Level 1 routers learn about paths within the area of which they are a part.
F. Level 2 routers learn about paths both within areas and between areas
Answer: AE
6. Which statement is true about Layer 2 security threats?
A. MAC spoofing, in conjunction with ARP snooping, is the most effective counter-measure against
reconnaissance attacks that use dynamic ARP inspection (DAI) to determine vulnerable attack points.
B. DHCP snooping sends unauthorized replies to DHCP queries.
C. ARP spoofing can be used to redirect traffic to counter dynamic ARP inspection.
D. Dynamic ARP inspection in conjunction with ARP spoofing can be used to counter DHCP snooping
attacks.
E. MAC spoofing attacks allow an attacking device to receive frames intended for a different network host.
F. Port scanners are the most effective defense against dynamic ARP inspection.
Answer: E
7. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has configured DHCP services on the router as shown.
DHCP clients connected to the FastEthernet0/0 interface are working properly. DHCP clients connected
to the FastEthernet0/1 interface are not receiving addresses. Which two statements contain
recommendations that will solve the problem? (Choose two.)
A. The ip helper-address 10.0.0.1 command should be issued so that the address can be added to the
FastEthernet0/0 configuration.
B. The ip helper-address 10.0.0.1 command should be issued so that the address can be added to the
FastEthernet0/1 configuration.
C. A second DHCP pool for network 10.10.0.0/24 should be configured.
D. The network shown in the output under the ip dhcp pool Central command should be changed to
network 10.10.0.0 with a mask of 255.255.255.0.
E. An ip dhcp excluded-address global configuration command for network 10.10.0.0/24 should be
issued.
Answer: CE
8. Which two statements about WLAN components are true? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco Aironet autonomous access points cannot be supported by the Cisco Unified Wireless Network.
B. Cisco Aironet lightweight access points cannot be supported by the Cisco Unified Wireless Network.
C. In the autonomous access point solution, control is provided by the Wireless Domain Services (WDS).
D. In the autonomous access point solution, control is provided by the WLAN controller.
E. In the lightweight access point solution, WLAN management is provided by the WLAN Solution Engine
(WLSE).
F. In the lightweight access point solution, WLAN management is provided by the WLAN Control System
(WCS).
Answer: CF
9. Which command will display EIGRP packets sent and received, as well as statistics on hello packets,
updates, queries, replies, and acknowledgments?
A. debug eigrp packets
B. show ip eigrp traffic
C. debug ip eigrp
D. show ip eigrp interfaces
Answer: B
10.Which three statements are true about implementing Cisco wireless LANs? (Choose three.)
A. LWAPP allows encrypted communication between lightweight access points and WLAN controllers.
B. The WLAN Solution Engine (WLSE) is used to control lightweight access points.
C. Power over Ethernet (PoE) is only available when a WLAN controller is integrated into the network.
D. One of the advantages of the lightweight WLAN solution is that the devices act independently.
E. Antenna power is a relative value reference to dBi.
F. Characteristics of antennas are directionality, gain, and polarization.
Answer:

Link: http://www.killtest.co.kr/CCNP/642-892.asp

1. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement accurately represents the characteristics of the core layer
in this design?
A. QoS should be performed only in the core.
B. Load balancing should never be implemented or used in the core.
C. Access lists should be used in the core to perform packet manipulation.
D. It is acceptable to use a partial mesh in the core if it is connected to each device by multiple paths.
E. Policybased
traffic control is implemented in the core to enable prioritization, ensuring the best
performance for all timecritical
applications.
Answer: D
2. Which statement accurately describes one difference between a small office and medium office
topology?
A. Small offices commonly use Rapid PVST+ for Layer 3 deployments.
B. Medium offices commonly use integrated route and switching platforms.
C. Medium offices use integrated 10/100/1000 interfaces as Layer 2 trunks.
D. Medium offices use external access switches to support LAN connectivity. Answer: D
3. Which three factors best justify WAN link redundancy between geographically dispersed sites?
(Choose three.)
A. important traffic flows
B. lack of speed
C. high link utilization
D. uncertain reliability
E. excessive packet transmission rate
F. high expense of transmitting data
Answer: ABD
4. Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements describe why Model A is the recommended design for
routing between Building Distribution switches and Campus Core switches? (Choose two.)
A. It uses timerbased
nondeterministic
convergence.
B. It is softwarebased,
providing fast convergence to the remaining path.
C. Routes are not summarized from distribution to the core.
D. The Layer 3 redundant equal cost links support fast convergence.
E. A link or box failure does not require routing protocol convergence.
Answer: DE
5. An organization needs a WAN Transport technology that meets these criteria: has a low initial cost
provides lowtomedium
BW has mediumtohigh
latency and jitter
Which technology would you suggest?
A. DSL
B. X.25
C. ISDN
D. wireless
E. analog modem
Answer: A
6. Which two of these represent a best practice implementation of a Split MAC LWAPP deployment in a
Cisco Unified Wireless Network? (Choose two.)
A. Each wireless client authentication type maps to a shared SSID which in turn maps to a common
shared VLAN.
B. Each wireless client authentication type maps to a unique SSID which in turn maps to a unique VLAN.
C. Each wireless client authentication type maps to a unique SSID which in turn maps to a common
shared VLAN.
D. 802.1Q trunking extends from the wired infrastructure to the access point for translation into SSID(s).
E. 802.1Q trunking extends from the wired infrastructure to a wireless LAN controller for translation into
SSID(s).
F. 802.1Q trunking extends from the wired infrastructure to a wireless LAN controller. Then the 802.1Q
packet is encapsulated in LWAPP and sent to the access point for transmission over the SSID(s).
Answer: BE
7. Which two statements represent advantages that the topdown
network design process has over the
bottomup
network design process? (Choose two.)
A. is able to provide the big picture
B. utilizes previous experience
C. takes less time to design a network
D. identifies appropriate technologies first
E. provides a design for current and future development
Answer: AE
8. Which two of these are required for wireless client mobility deployment when using a Cisco Unified
Wireless Network? (Choose two.)
A. assigned master controller
B. matching mobility group name
C. matching RF group name
D. matching RF power
E. matching security
F. matching RF channel
Answer: BE
9. Which two VoIP characteristics are affected most by codec choice? (Choose two.)
A. voice quality
B. silent packet handling
C. voice packet header size
D. bandwidth required for voice calls
Answer: AD
10. Which H.323 protocol controls call setup between endpoints?
A. H.225
B. H.245
C. RAS
D. RTCP
Answer: A
Link : http://www.killtest.co.kr/CCDA/640-863.asp

1. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement accurately represents the characteristics of the core layer
in this design?
A. QoS should be performed only in the core.
B. Load balancing should never be implemented or used in the core.
C. Access lists should be used in the core to perform packet manipulation.
D. It is acceptable to use a partial mesh in the core if it is connected to each device by multiple paths.
E. Policybased
traffic control is implemented in the core to enable prioritization, ensuring the best
performance for all timecritical
applications.
Answer: D
2. Which statement accurately describes one difference between a small office and medium office
topology?
A. Small offices commonly use Rapid PVST+ for Layer 3 deployments.
B. Medium offices commonly use integrated route and switching platforms.
C. Medium offices use integrated 10/100/1000 interfaces as Layer 2 trunks.
D. Medium offices use external access switches to support LAN connectivity. Answer: D
3. Which three factors best justify WAN link redundancy between geographically dispersed sites?
(Choose three.)
A. important traffic flows
B. lack of speed
C. high link utilization
D. uncertain reliability
E. excessive packet transmission rate
F. high expense of transmitting data
Answer: ABD
4. Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements describe why Model A is the recommended design for
routing between Building Distribution switches and Campus Core switches? (Choose two.)
A. It uses timerbased
nondeterministic
convergence.
B. It is softwarebased,
providing fast convergence to the remaining path.
C. Routes are not summarized from distribution to the core.
D. The Layer 3 redundant equal cost links support fast convergence.
E. A link or box failure does not require routing protocol convergence.
Answer: DE
5. An organization needs a WAN Transport technology that meets these criteria: has a low initial cost
provides lowtomedium
BW has mediumtohigh
latency and jitter
Which technology would you suggest?
A. DSL
B. X.25
C. ISDN
D. wireless
E. analog modem
Answer: A
6. Which two of these represent a best practice implementation of a Split MAC LWAPP deployment in a
Cisco Unified Wireless Network? (Choose two.)
A. Each wireless client authentication type maps to a shared SSID which in turn maps to a common
shared VLAN.
B. Each wireless client authentication type maps to a unique SSID which in turn maps to a unique VLAN.
C. Each wireless client authentication type maps to a unique SSID which in turn maps to a common
shared VLAN.
D. 802.1Q trunking extends from the wired infrastructure to the access point for translation into SSID(s).
E. 802.1Q trunking extends from the wired infrastructure to a wireless LAN controller for translation into
SSID(s).
F. 802.1Q trunking extends from the wired infrastructure to a wireless LAN controller. Then the 802.1Q
packet is encapsulated in LWAPP and sent to the access point for transmission over the SSID(s).
Answer: BE
7. Which two statements represent advantages that the topdown
network design process has over the
bottomup
network design process? (Choose two.)
A. is able to provide the big picture
B. utilizes previous experience
C. takes less time to design a network
D. identifies appropriate technologies first
E. provides a design for current and future development
Answer: AE
8. Which two of these are required for wireless client mobility deployment when using a Cisco Unified
Wireless Network? (Choose two.)
A. assigned master controller
B. matching mobility group name
C. matching RF group name
D. matching RF power
E. matching security
F. matching RF channel
Answer: BE
9. Which two VoIP characteristics are affected most by codec choice? (Choose two.)
A. voice quality
B. silent packet handling
C. voice packet header size
D. bandwidth required for voice calls
Answer: AD
10. Which H.323 protocol controls call setup between endpoints?
A. H.225
B. H.245
C. RAS
D. RTCP
Answer: A
Link : http://www.killtest.co.kr/CCDA/640-863.asp

1.Refer to the exhibit. A network technician is troubleshooting a connectivity problem on R2. The technician enters the show cdp neighbors command at the R2 console. If the network is composed only of Cisco devices, for which devices should entries be displayed?

A.R1
B.SW-B and R1
C.SW-B, R1, and SW-C
D.R3, SW-B, R1, and SW-C
E.SW-A, R3, SW-B, R1, and SW-C
F.Host A, SW-A, R3, SW-B, R1, and SW-C
Correct:B
2.Refer to the exhibit. What can be determined from the output shown?

A.The JaxSwitch1 switch is using VTP.
B.This is the only switch in the LAN topology.
C.The JaxSwitch1 switch is not the root switch.
D.The link to the root bridge is through a 1 Gbps connection.
E.Spanning Tree Protocol is disabled on the JaxSwitch1 switch.
Correct:C
3.What are the general recommendations regarding the placement of access control lists? (Choose two.)
A.Standard ACLs should be placed as close as possible to the source of traffic to be denied.
B.Extended ACLs should be placed as close as possible to the source of traffic to be denied .
C.Standard ACLs should be placed as close as possible to the destination of traffic to be denied .
D.Extended ACLs should be placed as close as possible to the destination of traffic to be denied .
Correct:B C
4.Drag Drop

Correct:
Green choice5—->Yellow Choice1
Green choice2—->Yellow Choice2
Green choice1—->Yellow Choice3
Green choice6—->Yellow Choice4
Green choice3—->Yellow Choice5
5.Refer to the graphic. Which of the following commands would create the output shown at the bottom of the graphic?

A.Router# show ip eigrp topology
B.Router# show ip route
C.Router# show ip eigrp neighbors
D.Router# show ip ospf route
E.Router# show ip ospf database
Correct:A
6.LAB

Correct:
7.Drag Drop

Correct:
Green choice1—->Yellow Choice5
Green choice2—->Yellow Choice3
Green choice3—->Yellow Choice1
Green choice4—->Yellow Choice6
Green choice5—->Yellow Choice4
Green choice6—->Yellow Choice2
8.Which command is required for connectivity in a Frame Relay network if Inverse ARP is not operational?
A.frame-relay arp
B.frame-relay map
C.frame-relay interface-dlci
D.frame-relay lmi-type
Correct:B
9.Refer to the exhibit. What can be determined about the interfaces of the Main_Campus router from the output shown?

A.The LAN interfaces are configured on different subnets.
B.Interface FastEthernet 0/0 is configured as a trunk.
C.The Layer 2 protocol of interface Serial 0/1 is NOT operational.
D.The router is a modular router with five FastEthernet interfaces.
E.Interface FastEthernet 0/0 is administratively deactivated.
Correct:B
10.Refer to the graphic. It has been decided that Workstation 1 should be denied access to Server1. Which of the following commands are required to prevent only Workstation 1 from accessing Server1 while allowing all other traffic to flow normally? (Choose two.)

A.RouterA(config)# interface fa0/0 RouterA(config-if)# ip access-group 101 out
B.RouterA(config)# interface fa0/0 RouterA(config-if)# ip access-group 101 in
C.RouterA(config)# access-list 101 deny ip host 172.16.161.150 host 172.16.162.163 RouterA(config)# access-list 101 permit ip any any
D.RouterA(config)# access-list 101 deny ip 172.16.161.150 0.0.0.255 172.16.162.163 0.0.0.0 RouterA(config)# access-list 101 permit ip any any
Correct:B C
11.Refer to the exhibit. Which two devices can be used to complete the connection between the WAN router at the customer site and the service provider? (Choose two.)

A.CSU/DSU
B.modem
C.WAN switch
D.ATM switch
E.Frame Relay switch
F.ISDN TA
Correct:A B
12.Drag Drop

Correct:
Green choice10—->Yellow Choice1
Green choice1—->Yellow Choice2
Green choice6—->Yellow Choice3
Green choice3—->Yellow Choice4
Green choice7—->Yellow Choice5
13.Refer to the exhibit. Host A is to send data to Host B. How will Router1 handle the data frame received from Host A? (Choose three.)

A.Router1 will strip off the source MAC address and replace it with the MAC address on the forwarding FastEthernet interface.
B.Router1 will strip off the source IP address and replace it with the IP address on the forwarding FastEthernet interface.
C.Router1 will strip off the destination MAC address and replace it with the MAC address of Host B.
D.Router1 will strip off the destination IP address and replace it with the IP address of Host B.
E.Router1 will forward the data frame out interface FastEthernet0/1.
F.Router1 will forward the data frame out interface FastEthernet0/2.
Correct:A C F
14.Why has the network shown in the exhibit failed to converge?

A.The no auto-summary command needs to be applied to the routers.
B.The network numbers have not been properly configured on the routers.
C.The subnet masks for the network numbers have not been properly configured.
D.The autonomous system number has not been properly configured.
E.The bandwidth values have not been properly configured on the serial interfaces.
Correct:A
15.Refer to the partial command output shown. Which two statements are correct regarding the router hardware? (Choose two.)

A.Total RAM size is 32 KB.
B.Total RAM size is 16384 KB (16 MB).
C.Total RAM size is 65536 KB (64 MB).
D.Flash size is 32 KB.
E.Flash size is 16384 KB (16 MB).
F.Flash size is 65536 KB (64 MB).
Correct:C E
16.Refer to the exhibit. R1 can ping across the serial link to 172.168.10.5, but cannot ping the FastEthernet interface of R2 (172.168.10.65). The routing protocol being used is EIGRP, and the routing table of R2 is shown. Which two statements could causes of this problem? (Choose two.)

A.The serial interface does not have the clockrate set.
B.EIGRP is not enabled on one of the routers.
C.The IP addressing scheme has overlapping subnetworks.
D.The IP addressing scheme is using subnet zero but the ip subnet-zero command has not been enabled on one or both of the routers.
E.The FastEthernet interface of R2 is administratively shutdown.
F.The EIGRP autonomous system numbers configured on the two routers do not match.
Correct:B F
17.If all OSPF routers in a single area are configured with the same priority value, what value does a router use for the OSPF router ID in the absence of a loopback interface?
A.the IP address of the first Fast Ethernet interface
B.the IP address of the console management interface
C.the highest IP address among its active interfaces
D.the lowest IP address among its active interfaces
E.the priority value until a loopback interface is configured
Correct:C
18.To configure the VLAN trunking protocol to communicate VLAN information between two switches, what two requirements must be met? (Choose two.)
A.Each end of the trunk line must be set to IEEE 802.1E encapsulation.
B.The VTP management domain name of both switches must be set the same.
C.All ports on both the switches must be set as access ports.
D.One of the two switches must be configured as a VTP server.
E.A rollover cable is required to connect the two switches together.
F.A router must be used to forward VTP traffic between VLANs.
Correct:B D
19.Assuming only one VLAN in the exhibit, which switch is acting as the root bridge?

A.Switch1
B.Switch2
C.Switch3
D.A root bridge is not required in this network.
Correct:C
20.If an ethernet port on a router was assigned an IP address of 172.16.112.1/20, what is the maximum number of hosts allowed on this subnet?
A.1024
B.2046
C.4094
D.4096
E.8190
Correct:C
21.Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator wants to prevent computers on the 192.168.23.64/26 subnet from accessing the 192.168.23.128/26 subnet via FTP. All other hosts should be allowed access. What commands should be entered on the router to accomplish this task?

A.Router(config)#access-list 101 deny tcp 192.168.23.64 0.0.0.63 192.168.23.128 0.0.0.63 eq ftp Router(config)#access-list 101 permit ip any any Router(config)#interface fa0/0 Router(config-if)#ip access-group 101 in
B.Router(config)#access-list 101 deny tcp 192.168.23.64 0.0.0.255 192.168.23.128 0.0.0.255 eq ftp Router(config)#access-list 101 permit ip any any Router(config)#interface fa0/0 Router(config-if)#ip access-group 101 in
C.Router(config)#access-list 101 deny tcp 192.168.23.64 0.0.0.63 192.168.23.128 0.0.0.63 eq ftp Router(config)#access-list 101 permit ip any any Router(config)#interface fa0/0 Router(config-if)#access-list 101 out
D.Router(config)#access-list 101 deny tcp 192.168.23.64 0.0.0.255 192.168.23.128 0.0.0.255 eq ftp Router(config)#access-list 101 permit ip any any Router(config)#interface fa0/1 Router(config-if)#ip access-group 101 in
E.Router(config)#access-list 101 deny tcp 192.168.23.128 0.0.0.63 192.168.23.64 0.0.0.63 eq ftp Router(config)#access-list 101 permit ip any any Router(config)#interface fa0/1 Router(config-if)#ip access-group 101 in
F.Router(config)#access-list 101 deny tcp 192.168.23.128 0.0.0.255 192.168.23.128 0.0.0.255 eq ftp Router(config)#access-list 101 permit ip any any Router(config)#interface fa0/1 Router(config-if)#ip access-group 101 out
Correct:A
22.A technician is investigating a problem with the exhibited network. These symptoms have been observed: - None of the user hosts can access the Internet. - None of the user hosts can access the server in VLAN 9. - Host A can ping Host B. - Host A CANNOT ping Host C or Host D. - Host C can ping Host D. What could cause the symptoms?

A.Interface S0/0 on the router is down.
B.Interface Fa1/0 on the router is down.
C.Interface Fa0/5 on Switch3 is down.
D.Interface Fa0/4 on Switch3 is down.
E.Switch 1 is turned off.
F.Switch 3 is turned off.
Correct:B
23.Which address represents a unicast address?
A.224.1.5.2
B.FFFF.FFFF.FFFF
C.192.168.24.59/30
D.255.255.255.255
E.172.31.128.255/18
Correct:E
24.How does replacing a hub with a switch affect CSMA/CD behavior in an Ethernet network?
A.It effectively eliminates collisions.
B.In increases the size of the collision domain by allowing more devices to be connected at once.
C.It decreases the amount of time that a jam signal must be sent to reach all network devices.
D.It reduces the total amount of bandwidth available to each device.
E.It eliminates Layer 3 broadcast traffic.
Correct:A
25.Access list 1 has been written to allow host 172.16.1.224 access to the router vty lines. What command would assign this access list to the virtual terminal lines?
A.router(config-line)# ip access-group 1 in
B.router(config-line)# access-class 1 in
C.router(config-line)# ip access-list 1 in
D.router(config-line)# access-line 1 in
Correct:B
26.A Catalyst 2950 needs to be reconfigured. What steps will ensure that the old configuration is erased? (Choose three.)
A.Erase flash.
B.Restart the switch.
C.Delete the VLAN database.
D.Erase the running configuration.
E.Erase the startup configuration.
F.Modify the configuration register.
Correct:B C E
27.Refer to the exhibit. Switch-1 needs to send data to a host with a MAC address of 00b0.d056.efa4. What will Switch-1 do with this data?

A.Switch-1 will drop the data because it does not have an entry for that MAC address.
B.Switch-1 will flood the data out all of its ports except the port from which the data originated.
C.Switch-1 will send an ARP request out all its ports except the port from which the data originated.
D.Switch-1 will forward the data to its default gateway.
Correct:B
28.The command ip route 192.168.24.64 255.255.255.192 192.168.8.2 100 was configured on a router named Corporate. No routing protocols or other static routes are configured on the Corporate router yet. Which statement is true about this command?
A.This command sets a gateway of last resort for the Corporate router.
B.The number 100 indicates the number of hops to the destination network.
C.The interface with IP address 192.168.8.2 is on the Corporate router.
D.The command creates a static route for all IP traffic with the source address 192.168.24.64.
E.Packets destined for host 192.168.24.124 will be sent to 192.168.8.2.
Correct:E
29.Refer to the exhibit. Why does the switch have two MAC addresses assigned to the FastEthernet 0/1 port in the switch address table?

A.Data from two of the devices connected to the switch has been sent to Host3.
B.Data from Host3 and Host4 has been received by switch port FastEthernet 0/1.
C.Either Host3 or Host4 has just had the NIC replaced.
D.Host3 and Host4 are on two different VLANs.
Correct:B
30.The network administrator has configured NAT as shown in the graphic. Some clients can access the Internet while others cannot. What should the network administrator do to resolve this problem?

A.Configure an IP NAT pool.
B.Properly configure the ACL.
C.Apply the ACL to the S0 interface.
D.Configure another interface with the ip nat outside command.
Correct:B
Link : http://www.killtest.co.kr/CCNA/640-811.asp

1.Refer to the exhibit. Why was this message received?

A.No VTY password has been set.
B.No enable password has been set.
C.No console password has been set.
D.No enable secret password has been set.
E.The login command has not been set on CON 0.
F.The login command has not been set on the VTY ports.
Correct:A
2.A network administrator needs to create 29 subnetworks while maximizing the number of host addresses available on each subnet. How many bits must be borrowed from the host field of the network address to provide the required number of subnets with the most hosts per subnet?
A.2
B.3
C.4
D.5
E.6
F.7
Correct:D
3.Refer to the exhibit. If host A sends an IP packet to host B, what will the OSI Layer 3 source address be in the packet when it reaches host B?

A.10.168.10.99
B.10.168.11.88
C.10.168.11.65
D.A1:A1:A1:A1:A1:A1
E.B2:B2:B2:B2:B2:B2
F.C3:C3:C3:C3:C3:C3
Correct:A
4.What is the difference between the Cisco router IOS commands show cdp neighbor detail and show cdp entry?
A.The show cdp neighbor detail command shows all neighbor information, while show cdp entry displays only one line of output for each neighbor.
B.The show cdp entry command shows neighbor information for specific neighbors only, while show cdp neighbor detail lists each neighbor with detailed output on each.
C.The show cdp entry command shows neighbor information for all neighbors with one line of output for each, while show cdp neighbor detail lists each neighbor with detailed output on each.
D.The show cdp neighbor detail command shows neighbor information for a single neighbor only, while show cdp entry displays detailed output on each neighbor known.
Correct:B
5.Refer to the exhibit. A person is trying to send a file from a host on Network A of the JAX Company to a server on Network Z of the XYZ Company. The file transfer fails. The host on Network A can communicate with other hosts on Network A. Which command, issued from router RTA, would be the most useful for troubleshooting this problem?

A.show flash:
B.show history
C.show version
D.show interfaces
E.show controllers serial
Correct:D
6.drag drop

Correct:
Green choice10—->Yellow Choice1
Green choice2—->Yellow Choice2
Green choice5—->Yellow Choice3
Green choice3—->Yellow Choice4
Green choice8—->Yellow Choice5
7.Which Layer 4 protocol is used for a Telnet connection?
A.IP
B.TCP
C.UDP
D.ICMP
E.DNS
Correct:B
8.What is the subnet address of 172.16.159.159/22?
A.172.16.0.0
B.172.16.128.0
C.172.16.156.0
D.172.16.159.0
E.172.16.159.128
F.172.16.192.0
Correct:C
9.What is the purpose of flow control?
A.to ensure data is retransmitted if an acknowledgment is not received
B.to reassemble segments in the correct order at the destination device
C.to provide a means for the receiver to govern the amount of data sent by the sender
D.to regulate the size of each segment
Correct:C
10.During the boot sequence, a 2600 series router needs to locate and load an operating system. What is the default order the router uses to find an operating system?
A.Flash, TFTP server, ROM
B.Flash, TFTP server, RAM
C.Flash, NVRAM, TFTP server
D.ROM, TFTP server, Flash
E.Flash, ROM, TFTP server
Correct:A
11.What is the subnet address for the IP address 172.19.20.23/28?
A.172.19.20.0
B.172.19.20.15
C.172.19.20.16
D.172.19.20.20
E.172.19.20.32
Correct:C
12.Which two statements describe the IP address 10.16.3.65/23? (Choose two.)
A.The subnet address is 10.16.3.0 255.255.254.0.
B.The lowest host address in the subnet is 10.16.2.1 255.255.254.0.
C.The last valid host address in the subnet is 10.16.2.254 255.255.254.0
D.The broadcast address of the subnet is 10.16.3.255 255.255.254.0.
E.The network is not subnetted.
Correct:B D
13.An administrator issues the show ip interface s0/0 command and the output displays the line Serial0/0 is up, line protocol is upWhat does “line protocol is up” specifically indicate about the interface?
A.Keepalives are being received on the interface.
B.The cable is attached properly.
C.CDP has discovered the connected device.
D.A carrier detect signal has been received from the connected device.
E.IP is correctly configured on the interface.
Correct:A
14.The Hub and Spoke routers are directly connected through their serial interfaces for purposes of testing. Based on the output shown in the exhibit, what must be done to make the serial line operational?

A.Start the clock on the Hub router.
B.Change the IP address on the Spoke router.
C.Configure the serial 0/0 interface on the Spoke router with a clockrate.
D.Replace the broken cable between the two devices.
E.Use the no shutdown command on the Hub router.
Correct:C
15.Which command will reinitialize the router and totally replace the running configuration with the current startup configuration?
A.router# reload
B.router# copy tftp startup-config
C.router# copy startup-config running-config
D.router# copy running-config flash
E.router# setup
F.router# restart
Correct:A
16.Refer to the graphic. What is the purpose of the two numbers shown following the exec-timeout command?

A.If no commands have been typed in 55 seconds, the console connection will be closed.
B.If no router activity has been detected in one hour and 55 minutes, the console will be locked out.
C.If no commands have been typed in one minute and 55 seconds, the console connection will be closed.
D.If connected to the router by Telnet, input must be detected within one hour and 55 seconds or the connection will be closed.
E.If connected to the router by Telnet, input must be detected within one minute and 55 seconds or the connection will be closed.
Correct:C
17.How will a Cisco 2600 series router respond if the conditions listed below exist during the boot process? 1) The IOS image in flash is missing. 2) No network connectivity is available. 3) The router fallback IOS image is corrupt.
A.The router will enter setup mode.
B.The router will enter ROM monitor mode.
C.The router will enter global configuration mode.
D.The boot will hang until an IOS is available.
E.The router will enter the prompted setup dialog.
Correct:B
18.A router receives a packet on interface 172.16.45.66/26. The source IP of the packet is 172.16.45.126/26 and the destination is 172.16.46.191/26. How will the router handle the packet?
A.The destination is a host on another subnet, so the router will not forward the packet.
B.The destination is a host on the same subnet, so the router will forward the packet.
C.The destination is a broadcast address, so the router will not forward the packet.
D.The destination is a network address, so the router will forward the packet.
Correct:C
19.Host A needs to communicate with the email server shown in the graphic. What address will be placed in the destination address field of the frame when it leaves Host A?

A.the MAC address of Host A
B.the MAC address of Switch 1
C.the MAC address of E0 of the router
D.the MAC address of E1 of the router
E.the MAC address of Switch 2
F.the MAC address of the email server
Correct:C
20.What is the default configuration register setting on most Cisco routers?
A.0×2210
B.0×2104
C.0×2102
D.0×2012
E.0×2142
Correct:C
21.drag drop

Correct:
Green choice1—->Yellow Choice5
Green choice2—->Yellow Choice2
Green choice3—->Yellow Choice4
Green choice4—->Yellow Choice3
Green choice5—->Yellow Choice1
22.Which statements accurately describe CDP? (Choose three.)
A.CDP is an IEEE standard protocol.
B.CDP is a Cisco proprietary protocol.
C.CDP is a datalink layer protocol.
D.CDP is a network layer protocol.
E.CDP can discover directly connected neighboring Cisco devices.
F.CDP can discover Cisco devices that are not directly connected.
Correct:B C E
23.drag drop

Correct:
Green choice1—->Yellow Choice2
Green choice2—->Yellow Choice1
Green choice4—->Yellow Choice3
Green choice6—->Yellow Choice4
Green choice5—->Yellow Choice5
24.Why is the show processes command used on a router before a debug command is entered?
A.to verify the IOS version that is running
B.to verify the amount of space in flash memory
C.to view the number of timers that are currently in use
D.to verify that the CPU utilization is low enough to handle the effects of a debug command
E.to check if the load meter file has enough space left to store the output of the debug command
Correct:D
25.lab

Correct:
26.drag drop

Correct:
Green choice4—->Yellow Choice1
Green choice3—->Yellow Choice2
Green choice6—->Yellow Choice3
Green choice2—->Yellow Choice4
Green choice5—->Yellow Choice5
27.Which of the following commands displays the configurable parameters and statistics of all interfaces on a router?
A.show running-config
B.show startup-config
C.show interfaces
D.show processes
E.show versions
Correct:C
28.Which types of cables are required to interconnect the devices shown in the graphic? (Choose three.)

A.V.35 cable
B.crossover cable
C.USB cable
D.RJ-11 cable
E.rollover cable
F.straight-through cable
Correct:B E F
29.Which statements are true regarding ICMP packets? (Choose two.)
A.They acknowledge receipt of TCP segments.
B.They guarantee datagram delivery.
C.They can provide hosts with information about network problems.
D.They are encapsulated within IP datagrams.
E.They are encapsulated within UDP datagrams.
Correct:C D
30.If NVRAM lacks boot system commands, where does the router look for the Cisco IOS by default?
A.ROM
B.RAM
C.Flash
D.bootstrap
E.startup-config
Correct:C
Link: http://www.killtest.co.kr/CCNA/640-821.asp

1. Refer to the exhibit. What could be possible causes for the “Serial0/0 is down” interface status? (Choose two.)
 
A. A Layer 1 problem exists.
B. The bandwidth is set too low.
C. A protocol mismatch exists.
D. An incorrect cable is being used.
E. There is an incorrect IP address on the Serial 0/0 interface.
Answer: AD

2. The network administrator has discovered that the power supply has failed on a switch in the company LAN and that the switch has stopped functioning. It has been replaced with a Cisco Catalyst 2950 series switch. What must be done to ensure that this new switch becomes the root bridge on the network?
A. Lower the bridge priority number.
B. Change the MAC address of the switch.
C. Increase the VTP revision number for the domain.
D. Lower the root path cost on the switch ports.
E. Assign the switch an IP address with the lowest value.
Answer: A

3. Refer to the exhibit. Assume that all of the router interfaces are operational and configured correctly. How will router R2 be affected by the configuration of R1 that is shown in the exhibit?
 
A. Router R2 will not form a neighbor relationship with R1.
B. Router R2 will obtain a full routing table, including a default route, from R1.
C. R2 will obtain OSPF updates from R1, but will not obtain a default route from R1.
D. R2 will not have a route for the directly connected serial network, but all other directly connected networks will be present, as well as the two Ethernet networks connected to R1.
Answer: A

4. Before installing a new, upgraded version of the IOS, what should be checked on the router, and which command should be used to gather this information? (Choose two.)
A. the amount of available ROM
B. the amount of available flash and RAM memory
C. the version of the bootstrap software present on the router
D. show version
E. show processes
F. show running-config
Answer: BD

5. Which three IP addresses can be assigned to hosts if the subnet mask is /27 and subnet zero is usable? (Choose three.)
A. 10.15.32.17
B. 17.15.66.128
C. 66.55.128.1
D. 135.1.64.34
E. 129.33.192.192
F. 192.168.5.63
Answer: ACD

6. Refer to the exhibit. After HostA pings HostB, which entry will be in the ARP cache of HostA to support this transmission?
 
A.
 
B.
 
C.
 
D.
 
E.
 
F.
 
Answer: D

7. Refer to the exhibit. A packet with a source IP address of 192.168.2.4 and a destination IP address of 10.1.1.4 arrives at the HokesB router. What action does the router take?
 
A. forwards the received packet out the Serial0/0 interface
B. forwards a packet containing an EIGRP advertisement out the Serial0/1 interface
C. forwards a packet containing an ICMP message out the FastEthernet0/0 interface
D. forwards a packet containing an ARP request out the FastEthernet0/1 interface
Answer: C

8. Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true about interVLAN routing in the topology that is shown in the exhibit? (Choose two.)
 
A. Host E and host F use the same IP gateway address.
B. Router1 and Switch2 should be connected via a crossover cable.
C. Router1 will not play a role in communications between host A and host D.
D. The FastEthernet 0/0 interface on Router1 must be configured with subinterfaces.
E. Router1 needs more LAN interfaces to accommodate the VLANs that are shown in the exhibit.
F. The FastEthernet 0/0 interface on Router1 and Switch2 trunk ports must be configured using the same encapsulation type.
Answer: DF

9. Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true about the loopback address that is configured on RouterB? (Choose two.)
 
A. It ensures that data will be forwarded by RouterB.
B. It provides stability for the OSPF process on RouterB.
C. It specifies that the router ID for RouterB should be 10.0.0.1.
D. It decreases the metric for routes that are advertised from RouterB.
E. It indicates that RouterB should be elected the DR for the LAN.
Answer: BC

10. A network administrator is explaining VTP configuration to a new technician. What should the network administrator tell the new technician about VTP configuration? (Choose three.)
A. A switch in the VTP client mode cannot update its local VLAN database.
B. A trunk link must be configured between the switches to forward VTP updates.
C. A switch in the VTP server mode can update a switch in the VTP transparent mode.
D. A switch in the VTP transparent mode will forward updates that it receives to other switches.
E. A switch in the VTP server mode only updates switches in the VTP client mode that have a higher VTP revision number.
F. A switch in the VTP server mode will update switches in the VTP client mode regardless of the configured VTP domain membership.
Answer: ABD
Link: http://www.killtest.co.kr/CCNA/640-802.asp

1.Drop

Correct:
Green choice10—->Yellow Choice1
Green choice2—->Yellow Choice2
Green choice5—->Yellow Choice3
Green choice3—->Yellow Choice4
Green choice8—->Yellow Choice5
2.Hotspot

Correct:
3.Refer to the exhibit. The junior network support staff provided the diagram as a recommended configuration for the first phase of a four-phase network expansion project. The entire network expansion will have over 1000 users on 14 network segments and has been allocated this IP address space: 192.168.1.1 through 192.168.5.255 192.168.100.1 through 198.168.100.255 What are three problems with this design? (Choose three.)

A.The AREA 1 IP address space is inadequate for the number of users.
B.The AREA 3 IP address space is inadequate for the number of users.
C.AREA 2 could use a mask of /25 to conserve IP address space.
D.The network address space that is provided requires a single network-wide mask.
E.The router-to-router connection is wasting address space.
F.The broadcast domain in AREA 1 is too large for IP to function.
Correct:A C E
4.A network administrator is connecting PC hosts A and B directly through their Ethernet interfaces as shown in the graphic. Ping attempts between the hosts are unsuccessful. What can be done to provide connectivity between the hosts? (Choose two.)

A.A crossover cable should be used in place of the straight-through cable.
B.A rollover cable should be used in place of the straight-through cable
C.The subnet masks should be set to 255.255.255.192.
D.A default gateway needs to be set on each host.
E.The hosts must be reconfigured to use private IP addresses for direct connections of this type.
F.The subnet masks should be set to 255.255.255.0.
Correct:A F
5.Why would a network administrator configure port security on a switch?
A.to prevent unauthorized Telnet access to a switch port
B.to limit the number of Layer 2 broadcasts on a particular switch port
C.to prevent unauthorized hosts from accessing the LAN
D.to protect the IP and MAC address of the switch and associated ports
E.to block unauthorized access to the switch management interfaces over common TCP ports
Correct:C
6.Which two statements best describe the wireless security standard that is defined by WPA? (Choose two.)
A.It specifies use of a static encryption key that must be changed frequently to enhance security.
B.It requires use of an open authentication method.
C.It specifies the use of dynamic encryption keys that change each time a client establishes a connection.
D.It requires that all access points and wireless devices use the same encryption key.
E.It includes authentication by PSK.
Correct:C E
7.Refer to the exhibit. The two connected ports on the switch are not turning orange or green. What would be the most effective steps to troubleshoot this physical layer problem? (Choose three.)

A.Ensure that the Ethernet encapsulations match on the interconnected router and switch ports.
B.Ensure that cables A and B are straight-through cables.
C.Ensure cable A is plugged into a trunk port.
D.Ensure the switch has power.
E.Reboot all of the devices.
F.Reseat all cables.
Correct:B D F
8.Refer to the exhibit. Host A needs to send data to Host B. Which Layer 2 and Layer 3 destination addresses will be used to send the data from Host A to Host B?

A.192.168.60.5 and 0011.43da.2c98
B.192.168.60.5 and 0007.0e56.ab2e
C.192.168.24.1 and 0007.0e56.ab2e
D.192.168.24.2 and 0007.0e84.acef
Correct:B
9.Refer to the exhibit. The IP address space of 128.107.7.0/24 has been allocated for all devices on this network. All devices must use the same subnet mask and all subnets are usable. Which subnet mask is required to apply the allocated address space to the configuration that is shown?

A.255.255.254.0
B.255.255.255.0
C.255.255.255.128
D.255.255.255.192
E.255.255.255.224
Correct:D
10.Which two statements describe the operation of the CSMA/CD access method? (Choose two.)
A.In a CSMA/CD collision domain, multiple stations can successfully transmit data simultaneously.
B.In a CSMA/CD collision domain, stations must wait until the media is not in use before transmitting.
C.The use of hubs to enlarge the size of collision domains is one way to improve the operation of the CSMA/CD access method.
D.After a collision, the station that detected the collision has first priority to resend the lost data.
E.After a collision, all stations run a random backoff algorithm. When the backoff delay period has expired, all stations have equal priority to transmit data.
F.After a collision, all stations involved run an identical backoff algorithm and then synchronize with each other prior to transmitting data.
Correct:B E
11.Refer to the exhibit. What two facts can be determined from the WLAN diagram? (Choose two.)

A.The area of overlap of the two cells represents a basic service set (BSS).
B.The network diagram represents an extended service set (ESS).
C.Access points in each cell must be configured to use channel 1.
D.The area of overlap must be less than 10% of the area to ensure connectivity.
E.The two Aps should be configured to operate on different channels.
Correct:B E
12.Assuming a subnet mask of 255.255.248.0, which three addresses are valid host addresses? (Choose three.)
A.172.16.8.0
B.172.16.9.0
C.172.16.16.0
D.172.16.20.0
E.172.16.24.0
F.172.16.31.0
Correct:B D F
13.Drop

Correct:
Green choice3—->Yellow Choice1
Green choice4—->Yellow Choice2
Green choice5—->Yellow Choice3
Green choice6—->Yellow Choice4
Green choice2—->Yellow Choice5
14.Refer to the exhibit. A technician pastes the configurations in the exhibit into the two new routers shown. Otherwise, the routers are configured with their default configurations. A ping from Host1 to Host2 fails, but the technician is able to ping the S0/0 interface of R2 from Host1. The configurations of the hosts have been verified as correct. What could be the cause of the problem?

A.The serial cable on R1 needs to be replaced.
B.The interfaces on R2 are not configured properly.
C.R1 has no route to the 192.168.1.128 network.
D.The IP addressing scheme has overlapping subnetworks.
E.The ip subnet-zero command must be configured on both routers.
Correct:C
15.Which form of NAT maps multiple private IP addresses to a single registered IP address by using different ports?
A.static NAT
B.dynamic NAT
C.overloading
D.overlapping
E.port loading
Correct:C
16.What should be part of a comprehensive network security plan?
A.Allow users to develop their own approach to network security.
B.Physically secure network equipment from potential access by unauthorized individuals.
C.Encourage users to use personal information in their passwords to minimize the likelihood of passwords being forgotten.
D.Delay deployment of software patches and updates until their effect on end-user equipment is well known and widely reported.
E.Minimize network overhead by deactivating automatic antivirus client updates.
Correct:B
17.A single 802.11g access point has been configured and installed in the center of a square office. A few wireless users are experiencing slow performance and drops while most users are operating at peak efficiency. What are three likely causes of this problem? (Choose three.)
A.mismatched TKIP encryption
B.null SSID
C.cordless phones
D.mismatched SSID
E.metal file cabinets
F.antenna type or direction
Correct:C E F
18.What two actions must a router take in order to route incoming packets? (Choose two.)
A.Identify the destination network address of each packet.
B.Identify the source network address of each packet.
C.Validate sources of routing information.
D.Inspect the routing table to select the best path to the destination network address.
E.Verify the receipt of routed packets by the next hop router.
F.Inspect the ARP table to verify a legitimate source MAC address for each packet.
Correct:A D
19.Refer to the exhibit. What is the effect of the configuration that is shown?

A.It configures SSH globally for all logins.
B.It tells the router or switch to try to establish an SSh connection first and if that fails to use Telnet.
C.It configures the virtual terminal lines with the password 030752180500.
D.It configures a Cisco network device to use the SSH protocol on incoming communications via the virtual terminal ports.
E.It allows seven failed login attempts before the VTY lines are temporarily shutdown.
Correct:D
20.What are two recommended ways of protecting network device configuration files from outside network security threats? (Choose two.)
A.Allow unrestricted access to the console or VTY ports.
B.Use a firewall to restrict access from the outside to the network devices.
C.Always use Telnet to access the device command line because its data is automatically encrypted.
D.Use SSH or another encrypted and authenticated transport to access device configurations.
E.Prevent the loss of passwords by disabling password encryption.
Correct:B D
21.Hotspot

Correct:
22.Which two statements describe the IP address 10.16.3.65/23? (Choose two.)
A.The subnet address is 10.16.3.0 255.255.254.0.
B.The lowest host address in the subnet is 10.16.2.1 255.255.254.0.
C.The last valid host address in the subnet is 10.16.2.254 255.255.254.0
D.The broadcast address of the subnet is 10.16.3.255 255.255.254.0.
E.The network is not subnetted.
Correct:B D
23.After the router interfaces shown in the diagram have been configured, it is discovered that hosts in the Branch LAN cannot access the Internet. Further testing reveals additional connectivity issues. What will fix this problem?

A.Change the address of the Branch router LAN interface.
B.Change the address of the Branch router WAN interface.
C.Change the subnet mask of the HQ router LAN interface.
D.Change the address of the HQ router LAN interface.
E.Change the address of the HQ router interface to the Internet.
F.Change the subnet mask of the HQ router interface to the Internet.
Correct:B
24.Refer to the exhibit. Serial0/0 does not respond to a ping request from a host on the FastEthernet0/0 LAN. How can this problem be corrected?

A.Enable the Serial 0/0 interface.
B.Correct the IP address for Serial 0/0.
C.Correct the IP address for FastEthernet 0/0.
D.Change the encapsulation type on Serial 0/0.
E.Enable autoconfiguration on the Serial 0/0 interface.
Correct:A
25.Refer to the exhibit. A network device needs to be installed in the place of the icon labeled Network Device to accommodate a leased line attachment to the Internet. Which network device and interface configuration meets the minimum requirements for this installation?

A.a router with two Ethernet interfaces
B.a switch with two Ethernet interfaces
C.a router with one Ethernet and one serial interface
D.a switch with one Ethernet and one serial interface
E.a router with one Ethernet and one modem interface
Correct:C
26.Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator is configuring RTA to connect to a non-Cisco network. Which two commands would be applied to the S0/0 WAN interface, but not to the Fa0/0 LAN interface? (Choose two.)

A.speed
B.no shutdown
C.ip address
D.authentication pap
E.encapsulation ppp
Correct:D E
27.At which layer of the OSI model does the protocol that provides the information displayed by the show cdp neighbors command operate?
A.physical
B.data link
C.network
D.transport
E.application
Correct:B
28.Refer to the exhibit. The network shown in the exhibit is running the RIPv2 routing protocol. The network has converged, and the routers in this network are functioning properly. The FastEthernet0/0 interface on R1 goes down. In which two ways will the routers in this network respond to this change? (Choose two.)

A.All routers will reference their topology database to determine if any backup routes to the 192.168.1.0 network are known.
B.Routers R2 and R3 mark the route as inaccessible and will not accept any further routing updates from R1 until their hold-down timers expire.
C.Because of the split-horizon rule, router R2 will be prevented from sending erroneous information to R1 about connectivity to the 192.168.1.0 network.
D.When router R2 learns from R1 that the link to the 192.168.1.0 network has been lost, R2 will respond by sending a route back to R1 with an infinite metric to the 192.168.1.0 network.
E.R1 will send LSAs to R2 and R3 informing them of this change, and then all routers will send periodic updates at an increased rate until the network again converges.
Correct:C D
29.Which of the following statements describe the network shown in the graphic? (Choose two.)

A.There are two broadcast domains in the network.
B.There are four broadcast domains in the network.
C.There are six broadcast domains in the network.
D.There are four collision domains in the network.
E.There are five collision domains in the network.
F.There are seven collision domains in the network.
Correct:A F
30.The administrator is unable to establish connectivity between two Cisco routers. Upon reviewing the command output of both routers, what is the most likely cause of the problem?

A.Authentication needs to be changed to PAP for both routers.
B.Serial ip addresses of routers are not on the same subnet.
C.Username/password is incorrectly configured.
D.Router names are incorrectly configured.
Correct:C
Link : http://www.killtest.co.kr/CCNA/640-822.asp

1.Refer to the exhibit. A junior network engineer has prepared the exhibited configuration file. What two statements are true of the planned configuration for interface fa0/1? (Choose two.)

A.The two FastEthernet interfaces will require NAT configured on two outside serial interfaces.
B.Address translation on fa0/1 is not required for DMZ Devices to access the Internet.
C.The fa0/1 IP address overlaps with the space used by s0/0.
D.The fa0/1 IP address is invalid for the IP subnet on which it resides.
E.Internet hosts may not initiate connections to DMZ Devices through the configuration that is shown.
Correct:B E
2.Refer to the exhibit. Which statement describes DLCI 17?

A.DLCI 17 describes the ISDN circuit between R2 and R3.
B.DLCI 17 describes a PVC on R2. It cannot be used on R3 or R1.
C.DLCI 17 is the Layer 2 address used by R2 to describe a PVC to R3.
D.DLCI 17 describes the dial-up circuit from R2 and R3 to the service provider.
Correct:C
3.What is the default Local Management Interface frame type transmitted by a Cisco router on a Frame Relay circuit?
A.Q933a
B.B8ZS
C.IETF
D.Cisco
E.ANSI
Correct:D
4.Refer to the exhibit. The network shown in the exhibit has just been installed. Host B can access the Internet, but it is unable to ping host C. What is the problem with this configuration?

A.Host B should be in VLAN 13.
B.The address of host C is incorrect.
C.The gateway for host B is in a different subnet than the host is on.
D.The switch port that sends VLAN 13 frames from the switch to the router is shut down.
E.The switch port connected to the router is incorrectly configured as an access port.
Correct:B
5.Drop

Correct:
Green choice1—->Yellow Choice5
Green choice2—->Yellow Choice3
Green choice3—->Yellow Choice1
Green choice4—->Yellow Choice6
Green choice5—->Yellow Choice4
Green choice6—->Yellow Choice2
6.Refer to the exhibit. The router has been configured with these commands: hostname Gateway interface FastEthernet 0/0 ip address 198.133.219.14 255.255.255.248 no shutdown interface FastEthernet 0/1 ip address 192.168.10.254 255.255.255.0 no shutdown interface Serial 0/0 ip address 64.100.0.2 255.255.255.252 no shutdown ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 64.100.0.1 What are the two results of this configuration? (Choose two.)

A.The default route should have a next hop address of 64.100.0.3.
B.Hosts on the LAN that is connected to FastEthernet 0/1 are using public IP addressing.
C.The address of the subnet segment with the WWW server will support seven more servers.
D.The addressing scheme allows users on the Internet to access the WWW server.
E.Hosts on the LAN that is connected to FastEthernet 0/1 will not be able to access the Internet without address translation.
Correct:D E
7.Hotspot

Correct:
8.Refer to the exhibit. Two routers have just been configured by a new technician. All interfaces are up. However, the routers are not sharing their routing tables. What is the problem?

A.Split horizon is preventing Router2 from receiving routing information from Router1.
B.Router1 is configured for RIP version 2, and Router2 is configured for RIP version 1.
C.Router1 has an ACL that is blocking RIP version 2.
D.There is a physical connectivity problem between Router1 and Router2.
E.Router1 is using authentication and Router2 is not.
Correct:B
9.Refer to the exhibit. What can be concluded from the output of the debug command?

A.The output represents normal OSPF operation.
B.The interfaces of two OSPF routers connected to the Border router are in the same subnet.
C.The OSPF router connected to interface Serial0/1 has NOT formed a neighbor relationship with the Border router.
D.A router is connected to interface Serial0/3 of the Border router. The OSPF router ID of the connected router is the IP address of the connected interface.
Correct:C
10.Refer to the output from the show running-config command in the exhibit. What should the administrator do to allow the workstations connected to the FastEthernet 0/0 interface to obtain an IP address?

A.Apply access-group 14 to interface FastEthernet 0/0.
B.Add access-list 14 permit any any to the access list configuration.
C.Configure the IP address of the FastEtherent 0/0 interface to 10.90.201.1.
D.Add an interface description to the FastEthernet 0/0 interface configuration.
Correct:C
11.S0/0 on R1 is configured as a multipoint interface to communicate with R2 and R3 in the hub-and-spoke Frame Relay topology shown in the exhibit. Originally, static routes were configured between these routers to successfully route traffic between the attached networks. What will need to be done in order to use RIP v2 in place of the static routes?

A.Configure the no ip subnet-zero command on R1, R2, and R3.
B.Dynamic routing protocols such as RIP v2 cannot be used across Frame Relay networks.
C.Configure the s0/0 interface on R1 as two subinterfaces and configure point-to-point links to R2 and R3.
D.Change the 172.16.2.0/25 and 172.16.2.128/25 subnetworks so that at least two bits are borrowed from the last octet.
E.Change the network address configurations to eliminate the discontiguous 172.16.2.0/25 and 172.16.2.128/25 subnetworks.
Correct:C
12.Refer to the exhibit. HostA cannot ping HostB. Assuming routing is properly configured, what could be the cause of this problem?

A.HostA is not on the same subnet as its default gateway.
B.The address of SwitchA is a subnet address.
C.The Fa0/0 interface on RouterA is on a subnet that can’t be used.
D.The serial interfaces of the routers are not on the same subnet.
E.The Fa0/0 interface on RouterB is using a broadcast address.
Correct:D
13.Refer to the exhibit. The routers are running RIPv2. Which addressing scheme would satisfy the needs of this network yet waste the fewest addresses?

A.Network 1: 192.168.10.0/26 Network 2: 192.168.10.64/26 Network 3: 192.168.10.128/26 Serial link 1: 192.168.20.0/24 Serial link 2: 192.168.30.0/24
B.Network 1: 192.168.10.0/26 Network 2: 192.168.10.64/28 Network 3: 192.168.10.80/29 Serial link 1: 192.168.10.88/30 Serial link 2: 192.168.10.96/30
C.Network 1: 192.168.10.0/26 Network 2: 192.168.10.64/27 Network 3: 192.168.10.96/28 Serial link 1: 192.168.10.112/30 Serial link 2: 192.168.10.116/30
D.Network 1: 192.168.10.0/27 Network 2: 192.168.10.64/28 Network 3: 192.168.10.96/29 Serial link 1: 192.168.10.112/30 Serial link 2: 192.168.10.116/30
Correct:C
14.Refer to the exhibit. At the end of an RSTP election process, which access layer switch port will assume the discarding role?

A.Switch3, port fa0/1
B.Switch3, port fa0/12
C.Switch4, port fa0/11
D.Switch4, port fa0/2
E.Switch3, port Gi0/1
F.Switch3, port Gi0/2
Correct:C
15.Refer to the exhibit. The Lakeside Company has the internetwork in the exhibit. The administrator would like to reduce the size of the routing table on the Central router. Which partial routing table entry in the Central router represents a route summary that represents the LANs in Phoenix but no additional subnets?

A.10.0.0.0/22 is subnetted, 1 subnets D10.0.0.0 [90/20514560] via 10.2.0.2, 6w0d, Serial0/1
B.10.0.0.0/28 is subnetted, 1 subnets D10.2.0.0 [90/20514560] via 10.2.0.2, 6w0d, Serial0/1
C.10.0.0.0/30 is subnetted, 1 subnets D10.2.2.0 [90/20514560] via 10.2.0.2, 6w0d, Serial0/1
D.10.0.0.0/22 is subnetted, 1 subnets D10.4.0.0 [90/20514560] via 10.2.0.2, 6w0d, Serial0/1
E.10.0.0.0/28 is subnetted, 1 subnets D10.4.4.0 [90/20514560] via 10.2.0.2, 6w0d, Serial0/1
F.10.0.0.0/30 is subnetted, 1 subnets D 10.4.4.4 [90/20514560] via 10.2.0.2, 6w0d, Serial0/1
Correct:D
16.Refer to the exhibit. What does STATUS=ACTIVE refer to in the output of the show frame-relay pvc command?

A.The PVC is experiencing congestion.
B.The Frame Relay switch is correctly programmed with the DLCI and is operational.
C.The router is actively broadcasting to establish a link to the Frame Relay switch.
D.The router is connected to the local Frame Relay switch, but not to the far end device.
Correct:B
17.The network administrator of the Oregon router adds the following command to the router configuration: ip route 192.168.12.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.12.1. What are the results of adding this command? (Choose two.)

A.The command establishes a static route.
B.The command invokes a dynamic routing protocol for 192.168.12.0.
C.Traffic for network 192.168.12.0 is forwarded to 172.16.12.1.
D.Traffic for all networks is forwarded to 172.16.12.1.
E.This route is automatically propagated throughout the entire network.
F.Traffic for network 172.16.12.0 is forwarded to the 192.168.12.0 network.
Correct:A C
18.Refer to the graphic. Users on the Holyoke router are unable to access the intranet server attached to interface E0 of the Chicopee router. Inspection of the routing table of the Holyoke router shows that an entry for the Chicopee E0 network is missing. Which command will configure the Holyoke router with a path to the intranet server network?

A.Holyoke(config)# ip host Chicopee 201.73.127.2
B.Holyoke(config)# ip host Chicopee 201.73.127.0 255.255.255.0
C.Holyoke(config)# ip network 202.18.38.0
D.Holyoke(config)# ip network 202.18.18.0 255.255.255.0
E.Holyoke(config)# ip route 202.18.18.0 255.255.255.0 201.73.127.2
F.Holyoke(config)# ip route 201.73.127.2 255.255.255.0 202.18.18.0
Correct:E
19.A network administrator would like to implement NAT in the network shown in the graphic to allow inside hosts to use a private addressing scheme. Where should NAT be configured?

A.Corporate router
B.Engineering router
C.Sales router
D.all routers
E.all routers and switches
Correct:A
20.Drop

Correct:
Green choice2—->Yellow Choice1
Green choice4—->Yellow Choice2
Green choice5—->Yellow Choice3
Green choice1—->Yellow Choice4
21.A network administrator must configure 200 switch ports to accept traffic from only the currently attached host devices. What would be the most efficient way to configure MAC-level security on all these ports?
A.Visually verify the MAC addresses and then telnet to the switches to enter the switchport-port security mac-address command.
B.Have end users e-mail their MAC addresses. Telnet to the switch to enter the switchport-port security mac-address command.
C.Use the switchport port-security MAC address sticky command on all the switch ports that have end devices connected to them.
D.Use show mac-address-table to determine the addresses that are associated with each port and then enter the commands on each switch for MAC address port-security.
Correct:C
22.LAB

A.Router>enable Router#config terminal Router(config)#hostname weaver weaver(config)#ip nat pool test 198.18.191.145 198.18.191.150 255.255.255.248 weaver(config)#ip nat inside source list 1 pool test overload weaver(config)#access-list 1 permit 192.168.108.32 0.0.0.31 weaver(config)#interface fa0/0 weaver(config-if)#ip address 192.168.108.62 255.255.255.224 weaver(config-if)#ip nat inside weaver(config-if)#interface s0/0 weaver(config-if)#ip nat outside
Correct:A
23.In which circumstance are multiple copies of the same unicast frame likely to be transmitted in a switched LAN?
A.during high traffic periods
B.after broken links are re-established
C.when upper-layer protocols require high reliability
D.in an improperly implemented redundant topology
E.when a dual ring topology is in use
Correct:D
24.Which PPP subprotocol negotiates authentication options?
A.NCP
B.ISDN
C.SLIP
D.LCP
E.DLCI
Correct:D
25.A network administrator is configuring the routers in the graphic for OSPF. The OSPF process has been started and the networks have been configured for Area 0 as shown in the diagram. The network administrator has several options for configuring RouterB to ensure that it will be preferred as the designated router (DR) for the 172.16.1.0 /24 LAN segment. What configuration tasks could be used to establish this preference? (Choose three.)

A.Configure the priority value of the Fa0/0 interface of RouterB to a higher value than any other interface on the Ethernet network.
B.Change the router id of Router B by assigning the IP address 172.16.1.130/24 to the Fa0/0 interface of RouterB.
C.Configure a loopback interface on RouterB with an IP address higher than any IP address on the other routers.
D.Change the priority value of the Fa0/0 interface of RouterB to zero.
E.Change the priority values of the Fa0/0 interfaces of RouterA and RouterC to zero.
F.No further configuration is necessary.
Correct:A C E
26.Which statements are true about EIGRP successor routes? (Choose two.)
A.A successor route is used by EIGRP to forward traffic to a destination.
B.Successor routes are saved in the topology table to be used if the primary route fails.
C.Successor routes are flagged as “active” in the routing table.
D.A successor route may be backed up by a feasible successor route.
E.Successor routes are stored in the neighbor table following the discovery process.
Correct:A D
27.When are packets processed by an inbound access list?
A.before they are routed to an outbound interface
B.after they are routed to an outbound interface
C.before and after they are routed to an outbound interface
D.after they are routed to an outbound interface but before being placed in the outbound queue
Correct:A
28.The company internetwork is subnetted using 29 bits. Which wildcard mask should be used to configure an extended access list to permit or deny access to an entire subnetwork?
A.255.255.255.224
B.255.255.255.248
C.0.0.0.224
D.0.0.0.8
E.0.0.0.7
F.0.0.0.3
Correct:E
29.A router has been configured to provide the nine users on the branch office LAN with Internet access, as shown in the diagram. It is found that some of the users on the LAN cannot reach the Internet. Based on the topology and router output shown, which command should be issued on the router to correct the problem?

A.Branch(config-if)# no shutdown
B.Branch(config-if)# duplex full
C.Branch(config-if)# no keepalive
D.Branch(config-if)# ip address 192.168.10.30 255.255.255.240
E.Branch(config-if)# bandwidth 100
F.Branch(config-if)# encapsulation 802.3
Correct:D
30.What are three valid reasons to assign ports to VLANs on a switch? (Choose three.)
A.to make VTP easier to implement
B.to isolate broadcast traffic
C.to increase the size of the collision domain
D.to allow more devices to connect to the network
E.to logically group hosts according to function
F.to increase network security
Correct:B E F
Link : http://www.killtest.co.kr/CCNA/640-816.asp

1.As a network engineer at Pass4sure.com, you are responsible for Pass4sure network. Which will be necessarily taken into consideration when implementing Syslogging in your network?
A.Log all messages to the system buffer so that they can be displayed when accessing the router.
B.Use SSH to access your Syslog information.
C.Enable the highest level of Syslogging available to ensure you log all possible event messages.
D.Syncronize clocks on the network with a protocol such as Network Time Protocol.
Correct:D
2.Which classes does the U.S. government place classified data into? (Choose three.)
A.SBU
B.Confidential
C.Secret
D.Top-secret
Correct:B C D
3.You are a network technician at Pass4sure.com. Which description is correct when you have generated RSA keys on your Cisco router to prepare for secure device management?
A.All vty ports are automatically enabled for SSH to provide secure management.
B.The SSH protocol is automatically enabled.
C.You must then zeroize the keys to reset secure shell before configuring other parameters.
D.You must then specify the general-purpose key size used for authentication with the crypto key generate rsa general-keys modulus command.
Correct:B
4.Which method is of gaining access to a system that bypasses normal security measures?
A.Creating a back door
B.Starting a Smurf attack
C.Conducting social engineering
D.Launching a DoS attack
Correct:A
5.As a candidate for CCNA examination, when you are familiar with the basic commands, if you input the command “enable secret level 5 password” in the global mode , what does it indicate?
A.Set the enable secret command to privilege level 5.
B.The enable secret password is hashed using SHA.
C.The enable secret password is hashed using MD5.
D.The enable secret password is encrypted using Cisco proprietary level 5 encryption.
E.The enable secret password is for accessing exec privilege level 5.
Correct:E
6.Which statement is true about a Smurf attack?
A.It sends ping requests to a subnet, requesting that devices on that subnet send ping replies to a target system.
B.It intercepts the third step in a TCP three-way handshake to hijack a session.
C.It uses Trojan horse applications to create a distributed collection of “zombie” computers, which can be used to launch a coordinated DDoS attack.
D.It sends ping requests in segments of an invalid size.
Correct:A
7.Please choose the correct description about Cisco Self-Defending Network characteristics.
 
A.INTEGRATED - P4S1 COLLABORATIVE - P4S2 ADAPTIVE - P4S3
B.INTEGRATED - P4S2 COLLABORATIVE - P4S1 ADAPTIVE - P4S3
C.INTEGRATED - P4S2 COLLABORATIVE - P4S3 ADAPTIVE - P4S1
D.INTEGRATED - P4S3 COLLABORATIVE - P4S2 ADAPTIVE - P4S1
Correct:B
8.Which three items are Cisco best-practice recommendations for securing a network? (Choose three.)
A.Deploy HIPS software on all end-user workstations.
B.Routinely apply patches to operating systems and applications.
C.Disable unneeded services and ports on hosts.
D.Require strong passwords, and enable password expiration.
Correct:B C D
9.With the increasing development of network, various network attacks appear. Which statement best describes the relationships between the attack method and the result?
 
A.Ping Sweep - P4S1 and P4S3 Port Scan - P4S2, P4S4 and P4S5
B.Ping Sweep - P4S2 and P4S4 Port Scan - P4S1, P4S3 and P4S5
C.Ping Sweep - P4S1 and P4S5 Port Scan - P4S2, P4S3 and P4S4
D.Ping Sweep - P4S2 and P4S3 Port Scan - P4S1, P4S4 and P4S5
Correct:B
10.For the following attempts, which one is to ensure that no one employee becomes a pervasive security threat, that data can be recovered from backups, and that information system changes do not compromise a system’s security?
A.Disaster recovery
B.Strategic security planning
C.Implementation security
D.Operations security
Correct:D
11.For the following options ,which one accurately matches the CLI command(s) to the equivalent SDM wizard that performs similar configuration functions?
A.setup exec command and the SDM Security Audit wizard
B.auto secure exec command and the SDM One-Step Lockdown wizard
C.aaa configuration commands and the SDM Basic Firewall wizard
D.Cisco Common Classification Policy Language configuration commands and the SDM Site-to-Site VPN wizard
Correct:B
12.Which three options are network evaluation techniques? (Choose three.)
A.Scanning a network for active IP addresses and open ports on those IP addresses
B.Using password-cracking utilities
C.Performing end-user training on the use of antispyware software
D.Performing virus scans
Correct:A B D
13.Which is the main difference between host-based and network-based intrusion prevention?
A.Network-based IPS is better suited for inspection of SSL and TLS encrypted data flows.
B.Host-based IPS can work in promiscuous mode or inline mode.
C.Network-based IPS can provide protection to desktops and servers without the need of installing specialized software on the end hosts and servers.
D.Host-based IPS deployment requires less planning than network-based IPS.
Correct:C
14.Which one is the most important based on the following common elements of a network design?
A.Business needs
B.Best practices
C.Risk analysis
D.Security policy
Correct:A
15.Given the exhibit below. You are a network manager of your company. You are reading your Syslog server reports. On the basis of the Syslog message shown, which two descriptions are correct? (Choose two.)
 
A.This message is a level 5 notification message.
B.This message is unimportant and can be ignored.
C.This is a normal system-generated information message and does not require further investigation.
D.Service timestamps have been globally enabled.
Correct:A D
16.Examine the following items, which one offers a variety of security solutions, including firewall, IPS, VPN, antispyware, antivirus, and antiphishing features?
A.Cisco 4200 series IPS appliance
B.Cisco ASA 5500 series security appliance
C.Cisco IOS router
D.Cisco PIX 500 series security appliance
Correct:B
17…
 
Correct:
18.The enable secret password appears as an MD5 hash in a router’s configuration file, whereas the enable password is not hashed (or encrypted, if the password-encryption service is not enabled). What is the reason that Cisco still support the use of both enable secret and enable passwords in a router’s configuration?
A.The enable password is used for IKE Phase I, whereas the enable secret password is used for IKE Phase II.
B.The enable password is considered to be a router’s public key, whereas the enable secret password is considered to be a router’s private key.
C.Because the enable secret password is a hash, it cannot be decrypted. Therefore, the enable password is used to match the password that was entered, and the enable secret is used to verify that the enable password has not been modified since the hash was generated.
D.The enable password is present for backward compatibility.
Correct:D
19.On the basis of the description of SSL-based VPN, place the correct descriptions in the proper locations.
 
Correct:
Green choice1—->Yellow Choice1
Green choice3—->Yellow Choice2
Green choice5—->Yellow Choice3
20.How does CLI view differ from a privilege level?
A.A CLI view supports only commands configured for that specific view, whereas a privilege level supports commands available to that level and all the lower levels.
B.A CLI view supports only monitoring commands, whereas a privilege level allows a user to make changes to an IOS configuration.
C.A CLI view and a privilege level perform the same function. However, a CLI view is used on a Catalyst switch, whereas a privilege level is used on an IOS router.
D.A CLI view can function without a AAA configuration, whereas a privilege level requires AAA to be configured.
Correct:A
21…
 
Correct:
22.When configuring Cisco IOS login enhancements for virtual connections, what is the “quiet period”?
A.A period of time when no one is attempting to log in
B.The period of time in which virtual logins are blocked as security services fully initialize
C.The period of time in which virtual login attempts are blocked, following repeated failed login attempts
D.The period of time between successive login attempts
Correct:C
23.Which result is of securing the Cisco IOS image by use of the Cisco IOS image resilience feature?
A.When the router boots up, the Cisco IOS image will be loaded from a secured FTP location.
B.The Cisco IOS image file will not be visible in the output from the show flash command.
C.The show version command will not show the Cisco IOS image file location.
D.The running Cisco IOS image will be encrypted and then automatically backed up to a TFTP server.
Correct:B
24.Which three statements are valid SDM configuration wizards? (Choose three.)
A.Security Audit
B.VPN
C.STP
D.NAT
Correct:A B D
25.null
 
Correct:
26.How do you define the authentication method that will be used with AAA?
A.With a method list
B.With the method command
C.With the method aaa command
D.With a method statement
Correct:A
27.Which three common examples are of AAA implementation on Cisco routers? Please place the correct descriptions in the proper locations.
 
Correct:
Green choice1—->Yellow Choice1
Green choice2—->Yellow Choice2
Green choice6—->Yellow Choice3
28.What is the objective of the aaa authentication login console-in local command?
A.It specifies the login authorization method list named console-in using the local RADIUS username-password database.
B.It specifies the login authorization method list named console-in using the local username-password database on the router.
C.It specifies the login authentication method list named console-in using the local user database on the router.
D.It specifies the login authentication list named console-in using the local username- password database on the router.
Correct:C
29.Which description is true about the show login command output displayed in the exhibit?
 
A.All logins from any sources are blocked for another 193 seconds.
B.The login block-for command is configured to block login hosts for 93 seconds.
C.When the router goes into quiet mode, any host is permitted to access the router via Telnet, SSH, and HTTP, since the quiet-mode access list has not been configured.
D.Three or more login requests have failed within the last 100 seconds.
Correct:D
30.Which one of the following commands can be used to enable AAA authentication to determine if a user can access the privilege command level?
A.aaa authentication enable default local
B.aaa authentication enable level
C.aaa authentication enable method default
D.aaa authentication enable default
Correct:D
Link : http://www.killtest.co.kr/CCNA/640-553.asp

1. Which of the following WLAN service components all occur in the prepare phase?
A. High-level Design, Proof of Concept, Technology Strategy Development
B. System Requirements Validation, WLAN wired Network Integration Assessment, Operations
Readiness Assessment
C. Proposal Development, Customer Education, Service Assurance
D. Security Assessment, Security Administration, Staging Plan Development
Answer: A

2. Which service component within the prepare phase provides a technology-focused and/or
business-focused demonstration of the wireless technology solution to highlight the features and benefits? Select exactly 1 answer(s) from the following.
A. High-Level Design Development
B. Customer Education
C. Technology Strategy Development
D. Proposal Delivery
E. Proof of Concept
Answer: B

3. The activity of identifying the customer’s support model for WLAN is part of which service component in the plan phase? Select exactly 1 answer(s) from the following:
A. Operations Readiness Assessment
B. Site Readiness assessment
C. Proposal Delivery
D. Account Planning
Answer: A

4. “In the wireless design phase, which service component provides a comprehensive,
implementation-ready design for the customer’s wireless solution?” Select exactly 1 answer(s) from the following:
A. Business Plan
B. Staging Plan
C. Detailed Design Development
D. Systems Acceptance Test Plan Development
Answer: C

5. Which two service components are performed during the wireless implement phase? (Choose two.)
Select exactly 21 answer(s) from the following:
A. Wireless Readiness Assessment
B. Project Planning
C. Site Readiness Specification
D. Systems Acceptance Testing
E. Configuration Management
Answer: BD

6. Which service component within the prepare phase recommends the appropriate wireless technology to address a business requirement of the customer? Select exactly 1 answer(s) from the following:
A. Account Qualification and Planning
B. Business Case Development
C. Technology Strategy Development
D. Proof of Concept
Answer: C

7. “Analyzing the customer’s WLAN design including interference and signal strength, and recommending design changes to accommodate a voice over WLAN system, are activities associated with which service component in the plan phase?” Select exactly 1 answer(s) from the following.
A. WLAN Wired Network Integration Assessment
B. Voice Over WLAN Assessment
C. Operations Readiness Assessment
D. Security Architecture Assessment
E. Service Assurance
Answer: B

8. Which wireless service component addressees issues related to originating, evaluating, and scheduling change? Select exactly 1 answer(s) from the following:
A. Incident Management
B. Change Management
C. Configuration Management
D. Acceptance Test Plan
Answer: C

9. Which activity is associated with the wireless technology assessment service component? Select exactly 1 answer(s) from the following:
A. Perform Infrastructure Audit
B. Execute Test Cases
C. Develop Escalation Plan
D. Develop Project Management
Answer: A

10. Which WLAN service component within the prepare phase assesses the customer’s business and technical requirements and includes a solution value assessment? Select exactly 1 answer(s) from the following:
A. Business Case Development
B. Business Requirements Development
C. High-Level Design Development
D. Technology Strategy Development
Answer: A
Link : http://www.killtest.co.kr/SalesExpert/650-621.asp